About this quiz
A new set of 30 general knowledge questions from the whole Loksewa Pathsala question bank every time you start.
This Lok Sewa practice set has 525 multiple-choice questions (Subject: General Knowledge · For: Kharidar, Nayab Subba, Section Officer · Level: Medium). Take the quiz above first; after that, use the study list below to revise every question with its correct answer and a short explanation.
Study list: all 525 questions with answers and explanations
In which Part of the Constitution of Nepal are the fundamental rights listed?
- A) Part 2
- B) Part 3 ✔
- C) Part 4
- D) Part 5
Why: Part 3 (Articles 16 to 48) covers Fundamental Rights and Duties.
How many fundamental rights does the Constitution of Nepal guarantee?
- A) 25
- B) 28
- C) 31 ✔
- D) 35
Why: Articles 16 to 46 list 31 fundamental rights.
Which Article guarantees the Right to live with dignity?
- A) Article 16 ✔
- B) Article 17
- C) Article 18
- D) Article 20
Why: Article 16 is the first fundamental right. It also says no law shall provide for the death penalty.
Which Article of the Constitution of Nepal guarantees the Right to equality?
- A) Article 16
- B) Article 17
- C) Article 18 ✔
- D) Article 24
Why: Article 18 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law.
The Right to freedom is guaranteed by which Article?
- A) Article 17 ✔
- B) Article 19
- C) Article 21
- D) Article 26
Why: Article 17 covers freedoms such as opinion and expression, assembly, association and movement.
Which Article guarantees the Right to information?
- A) Article 25
- B) Article 27 ✔
- C) Article 28
- D) Article 30
Why: Article 27 gives every citizen the right to seek and receive information on matters of public importance.
The Right to privacy is guaranteed by which Article?
- A) Article 26
- B) Article 27
- C) Article 28 ✔
- D) Article 29
Why: Article 28 protects the privacy of a person, residence, property, documents, data and character.
Which Article guarantees the Right to clean environment?
- A) Article 29
- B) Article 30 ✔
- C) Article 33
- D) Article 35
Why: Article 30 gives every citizen the right to live in a clean and healthy environment.
Which Article covers the Right relating to education?
- A) Article 31 ✔
- B) Article 32
- C) Article 34
- D) Article 36
Why: Article 31 includes the right to free and compulsory basic education and free education up to secondary level.
The Right relating to health is guaranteed by which Article?
- A) Article 33
- B) Article 34
- C) Article 35 ✔
- D) Article 37
Why: Article 35 includes the right to free basic health services from the State.
Which Article guarantees the Right relating to food?
- A) Article 34
- B) Article 36 ✔
- C) Article 38
- D) Article 40
Why: Article 36 includes the right to food and food sovereignty.
Rights of women are guaranteed by which Article?
- A) Article 38 ✔
- B) Article 39
- C) Article 40
- D) Article 42
Why: Article 38 covers rights of women, including participation in all State bodies on the basis of proportional inclusion.
Which Article guarantees the Rights of the child?
- A) Article 37
- B) Article 38
- C) Article 39 ✔
- D) Article 41
Why: Article 39 protects every child, including against child labour and child marriage.
Rights of Dalit are guaranteed by which Article?
- A) Article 40 ✔
- B) Article 41
- C) Article 42
- D) Article 44
Why: Article 40 covers the rights of Dalit, including free education with scholarships.
Which Article guarantees the Right against untouchability and discrimination?
- A) Article 22
- B) Article 24 ✔
- C) Article 26
- D) Article 29
Why: Article 24 prohibits untouchability and discrimination of any kind.
The Right against torture is guaranteed by which Article?
- A) Article 20
- B) Article 21
- C) Article 22 ✔
- D) Article 23
Why: Article 22 says no person in custody shall be subjected to physical or mental torture.
Which Article guarantees the Right to employment?
- A) Article 32
- B) Article 33 ✔
- C) Article 34
- D) Article 43
Why: Article 33 gives every citizen the right to employment. Article 34 is the right to labour.
Which Article guarantees the Right to constitutional remedies?
- A) Article 44
- B) Article 45
- C) Article 46 ✔
- D) Article 47
Why: Article 46 gives the right to go to the court to enforce fundamental rights.
Which Article covers the Right against exile?
- A) Article 43
- B) Article 44
- C) Article 45 ✔
- D) Article 46
Why: Article 45 says no citizen shall be exiled.
Within how many years must laws be made to implement the fundamental rights (Article 47)?
- A) One year
- B) Two years
- C) Three years ✔
- D) Five years
Why: Article 47 required the State to make the necessary laws within three years of the commencement of the Constitution.
In which two hemispheres does Nepal lie?
- A) Northern and Western
- B) Southern and Eastern
- C) Northern and Eastern ✔
- D) Southern and Western
Why: Nepal is north of the Equator and east of the Prime Meridian, so it lies in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres.
What is the latitudinal extent of Nepal?
- A) 24°22' N to 28°27' N
- B) 26°22' N to 30°27' N ✔
- C) 28°22' N to 32°27' N
- D) 26°22' N to 32°27' N
Why: Nepal stretches from 26°22' North to 30°27' North, a span of about 4 degrees.
What is the longitudinal extent of Nepal?
- A) 80°04' E to 88°12' E ✔
- B) 78°04' E to 86°12' E
- C) 82°04' E to 90°12' E
- D) 80°04' E to 84°12' E
Why: Nepal stretches from 80°04' East to 88°12' East, a span of about 8 degrees.
What is the approximate east to west length of Nepal?
- A) 585 km
- B) 685 km
- C) 1,085 km
- D) 885 km ✔
Why: Nepal is about 885 km long from east to west.
Which important line of latitude lies south of Nepal and does not pass through it?
- A) Equator
- B) Arctic Circle
- C) Tropic of Cancer ✔
- D) Tropic of Capricorn
Why: The Tropic of Cancer (about 23.5° N) passes through India, south of Nepal's southern limit of 26°22' N.
Nepal Standard Time is based on which meridian?
- A) 86°15' East ✔
- B) 82°30' East
- C) 84°00' East
- D) 88°12' East
Why: Nepal Standard Time (UTC+5:45) is based on 86°15' E, which passes near Gaurishankar.
What is the total area of Nepal according to the updated map of 2077 BS?
- A) 141,181 sq km
- B) 147,181 sq km
- C) 147,516 sq km ✔
- D) 151,516 sq km
Why: After Limpiyadhura, Lipulekh and Kalapani were included in the 2077 BS map, Nepal's area is given as 147,516 sq km.
Limpiyadhura, Lipulekh and Kalapani lie in which district of Nepal?
- A) Baitadi
- B) Bajhang
- C) Humla
- D) Darchula ✔
Why: These areas lie in the north-west of Darchula district, in the source region of the Mahakali river.
Nepal is bordered by India on how many sides?
- A) Three: east, south and west ✔
- B) Only one: south
- C) Two: south and west
- D) Four sides
Why: India surrounds Nepal on the east, south and west, while China lies to the north.
How many Indian states share a border with Nepal?
- A) Three
- B) Four
- C) Five ✔
- D) Six
Why: The five states are Sikkim, West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
Which Indian state does NOT share a border with Nepal?
- A) Sikkim
- B) Himachal Pradesh ✔
- C) Bihar
- D) Uttarakhand
Why: Himachal Pradesh does not touch Nepal; the other three do.
Through which treaty did the Mahakali river become Nepal's western boundary?
- A) Treaty of Betrawati
- B) Treaty of Thapathali
- C) Treaty of Peace and Friendship 1950
- D) Sugauli Treaty ✔
Why: The Sugauli Treaty of 1816 AD fixed the Mahakali as Nepal's western border.
The Birgunj border crossing in Parsa faces which Indian town?
- A) Raxaul ✔
- B) Jogbani
- C) Sonauli
- D) Rupaidiha
Why: Birgunj faces Raxaul in Bihar.
The Rasuwagadhi border point connects Nepal with which place in Tibet?
- A) Khasa (Zhangmu)
- B) Lhasa
- C) Kerung (Gyirong) ✔
- D) Purang
Why: Rasuwagadhi in Rasuwa district links Nepal with Kerung (Gyirong) in Tibet.
Where is the lowest point of Nepal located?
- A) Kechana Kalan, Jhapa ✔
- B) Biratnagar, Morang
- C) Koshi Tappu, Sunsari
- D) Birgunj, Parsa
Why: Kechana Kalan in Jhapa district is the lowest point of Nepal.
What is the height of Mount Everest announced jointly by Nepal and China in 2077 BS?
- A) 8,848 m
- B) 8,850 m
- C) 8,844.43 m
- D) 8,848.86 m ✔
Why: In 2077 BS (2020 AD) Nepal and China jointly announced the height of Everest as 8,848.86 m.
Which ecological region covers the largest share of Nepal's area?
- A) Mountain region
- B) Hill region ✔
- C) Tarai region
- D) Trans-Himalayan region
Why: The Hill region covers about 68 percent of Nepal's area, the Tarai about 17 percent and the Mountain region about 15 percent.
Which region of Nepal is known as the granary of the country?
- A) Hill region
- B) Mountain region
- C) Tarai region ✔
- D) Trans-Himalayan region
Why: The flat and fertile Tarai produces most of Nepal's food grains.
Which is the youngest mountain range of Nepal?
- A) Great Himalaya
- B) Mahabharat range
- C) Trans-Himalaya
- D) Chure (Siwalik) range ✔
Why: The Chure, or Siwalik, is the southernmost and youngest range, with loose soil that erodes easily.
What is the porous belt of boulders and gravel at the foot of the Chure hills called?
- A) Bhabar ✔
- B) Doon
- C) Lekh
- D) Besi
Why: In the Bhabar belt, streams often sink underground before reappearing in the Tarai.
Chitwan, Dang and Surkhet are examples of what?
- A) Trans-Himalayan valleys
- B) Glacial lakes
- C) Inner Tarai (Bhitri Madhesh) valleys ✔
- D) High Himalayan peaks
Why: These are low valleys between the Chure and Mahabharat ranges, called inner Tarai.
Which is the second highest mountain in Nepal?
- A) Kangchenjunga ✔
- B) Lhotse
- C) Makalu
- D) Dhaulagiri
Why: Kangchenjunga, the third highest in the world, is the second highest peak in Nepal.
Which wind system brings most of Nepal's rainfall?
- A) Western disturbances in winter
- B) Trade winds from the Arabian Sea
- C) North-east winds from Tibet
- D) Summer monsoon from the Bay of Bengal ✔
Why: Most rain falls from June to September with the summer monsoon from the Bay of Bengal.
Why do Mustang and Manang receive very little rain?
- A) They are close to the sea
- B) They lie in a rain shadow north of the Himalaya ✔
- C) They lie in the inner Tarai
- D) They are covered by forests
Why: The main Himalayan range blocks monsoon clouds, leaving the trans-Himalayan areas dry.
Rivers of Nepal that start in the Himalaya and flow all year round are fed mainly by what?
- A) Snow and glaciers ✔
- B) Only monsoon rain
- C) Underground springs of the Tarai
- D) Water from the Chure hills
Why: The big Himalayan rivers are fed by snow and glaciers, so they carry water even in the dry season.
Which of the following rivers starts in the Mahabharat range?
- A) Karnali
- B) Bagmati ✔
- C) Arun
- D) Kali Gandaki
Why: The Bagmati rises in the Mahabharat-Shivapuri hills; the other three are Himalayan rivers.
Rivers that start in the Chure hills are mostly of which kind?
- A) Fed by glaciers all year
- B) The longest rivers of Nepal
- C) Seasonal, swelling mainly during the monsoon ✔
- D) Rivers that flow north into Tibet
Why: Chure rivers are small and mostly seasonal, carrying a lot of water only in the rainy season.
Which is the correct order of Nepal's four big river systems from east to west?
- A) Gandaki, Koshi, Mahakali, Karnali
- B) Koshi, Karnali, Gandaki, Mahakali
- C) Mahakali, Karnali, Gandaki, Koshi
- D) Koshi, Gandaki, Karnali, Mahakali ✔
Why: From east to west the order is Koshi, Gandaki, Karnali and Mahakali.
Why is the Koshi also called the Saptakoshi?
- A) It flows through seven districts
- B) It is formed by seven tributaries ✔
- C) It has seven dams
- D) It is 700 km long
Why: Sapta means seven; the Koshi is formed by seven tributaries.
Which of the following is NOT a tributary of the Koshi?
- A) Tamor
- B) Dudhkoshi
- C) Marsyangdi ✔
- D) Indrawati
Why: The Marsyangdi belongs to the Gandaki system.
Which tributary of the Koshi begins in Tibet?
- A) Likhu
- B) Tamakoshi
- C) Indrawati
- D) Arun ✔
Why: The Arun rises in Tibet and cuts through the Himalaya before entering Nepal.
At Tribeni, which three rivers meet to form the Saptakoshi?
- A) Sunkoshi, Arun and Tamor ✔
- B) Dudhkoshi, Likhu and Tamakoshi
- C) Indrawati, Sunkoshi and Bhote Koshi
- D) Arun, Mechi and Kankai
Why: The Sunkoshi, Arun and Tamor meet at Tribeni, after which the river is called the Saptakoshi.
Which river was long known in India as the Sorrow of Bihar?
- A) Gandaki
- B) Koshi ✔
- C) Bagmati
- D) Karnali
Why: Frequent floods of the Koshi in Bihar earned it the name Sorrow of Bihar.
Which of the following is NOT a tributary of the Gandaki system?
- A) Seti
- B) Trishuli
- C) Tamor ✔
- D) Budhi Gandaki
Why: The Tamor is part of the Koshi system.
Where does the Kali Gandaki river originate?
- A) Upper Mustang ✔
- B) Gorkha
- C) Rasuwa
- D) Humla
Why: The Kali Gandaki rises in upper Mustang near the Tibetan border.
The Kali Gandaki gorge lies between which two mountain massifs?
- A) Everest and Lhotse
- B) Manaslu and Ganesh Himal
- C) Makalu and Kangchenjunga
- D) Dhaulagiri and Annapurna ✔
Why: The Kali Gandaki cuts one of the deepest gorges in the world between Dhaulagiri and Annapurna.
After the Kali Gandaki and Trishuli meet at Devghat, the Gandaki is called by which name?
- A) Rapti
- B) Narayani ✔
- C) Seti
- D) Sharda
Why: Below Devghat the Gandaki is called the Narayani; in India it is the Gandak.
Which river is generally regarded as the longest river of Nepal?
- A) Koshi
- B) Gandaki
- C) Karnali ✔
- D) Bagmati
Why: The Karnali, which rises in Tibet and enters Nepal in Humla, is regarded as Nepal's longest river.
In India the Karnali is known by which name?
- A) Ghaghara ✔
- B) Gandak
- C) Sharda
- D) Kosi
Why: The Karnali is called the Ghaghara in India.
Which river forms Nepal's western border with India?
- A) Karnali
- B) Seti
- C) Babai
- D) Mahakali ✔
Why: The Mahakali river forms the western border between Nepal and India.
In India the Mahakali river is called by which name?
- A) Ghaghara
- B) Sharda ✔
- C) Yamuna
- D) Gandak
Why: The Mahakali is known as the Sharda (Sarda) in India.
Where does the Bagmati river begin?
- A) Gosaikunda
- B) Phulchoki
- C) Baghdwar in Shivapuri ✔
- D) Chandragiri
Why: The Bagmati rises at Baghdwar in the Shivapuri hills north of Kathmandu.
Which river forms part of Nepal's eastern border with India?
- A) Mechi ✔
- B) Kamala
- C) Tamor
- D) Kankai
Why: The Mechi forms part of the eastern border, mainly in Jhapa district.
Which is the largest lake of Nepal?
- A) Phewa
- B) Tilicho
- C) Begnas
- D) Rara ✔
Why: Rara Lake in Mugu is the largest lake of Nepal.
Phoksundo, the deepest lake of Nepal, lies in which district?
- A) Mugu
- B) Dolpa ✔
- C) Manang
- D) Humla
Why: Phoksundo Lake lies in Dolpa district inside Shey Phoksundo National Park.
Kulekhani (Indrasarovar) in Makwanpur is best described as what?
- A) A natural glacial lake
- B) A Ramsar-listed oxbow lake
- C) A man-made reservoir for hydropower ✔
- D) The source of the Bagmati
Why: Kulekhani is a reservoir built to store water for hydropower.
Which was Nepal's first Ramsar site, listed in 1987?
- A) Koshi Tappu Wildlife Reserve ✔
- B) Rara Lake
- C) Ghodaghodi Lake
- D) Beeshazar Lake
Why: Koshi Tappu Wildlife Reserve became Nepal's first wetland of international importance in 1987.
What does GLOF stand for?
- A) Great Lake Overflow Factor
- B) Ground Level Of Flood
- C) Glacier Land Outflow Formation
- D) Glacial Lake Outburst Flood ✔
Why: A GLOF is a sudden flood caused when water bursts out of a glacial lake.
Which was the first hydropower plant of Nepal, started in 1968 BS?
- A) Trishuli
- B) Sundarijal
- C) Pharping ✔
- D) Panauti
Why: Pharping Hydropower Station (500 kW) began in 1968 BS (1911 AD) during Chandra Shumsher's rule.
The Baise rajya were a group of how many small states, and in which region?
- A) 24 states in the Gandaki region
- B) 22 states in the Karnali region ✔
- C) 22 states in the Koshi region
- D) 24 states in the Kathmandu valley
Why: The Baise (22) states lay in the Karnali region; the Chaubise (24) states lay in the Gandaki region.
To which group of states did Gorkha belong before unification?
- A) Baise rajya
- B) Malla kingdoms
- C) Chaubise rajya ✔
- D) Sen kingdoms
Why: Gorkha was one of the Chaubise (24) states of the Gandaki region.
Which were the three Malla kingdoms of the Kathmandu valley?
- A) Kathmandu, Lalitpur and Bhaktapur ✔
- B) Kathmandu, Kirtipur and Nuwakot
- C) Lalitpur, Makwanpur and Gorkha
- D) Bhaktapur, Banepa and Nuwakot
Why: The valley was divided into the kingdoms of Kathmandu (Kantipur), Lalitpur (Patan) and Bhaktapur.
Who founded the Shah kingdom of Gorkha in 1616 BS?
- A) Ram Shah
- B) Nara Bhupal Shah
- C) Prithvipati Shah
- D) Dravya Shah ✔
Why: Dravya Shah founded the Gorkha kingdom in 1616 BS (1559 AD).
Which king of Gorkha was famous for his fair laws and justice?
- A) Ram Shah ✔
- B) Dravya Shah
- C) Bahadur Shah
- D) Rana Bahadur Shah
Why: Ram Shah was known for justice, giving rise to the saying that those who find no justice elsewhere should go to Gorkha.
In which year was Prithvi Narayan Shah born?
- A) 1775 BS
- B) 1799 BS
- C) 1779 BS ✔
- D) 1801 BS
Why: Prithvi Narayan Shah was born in Gorkha in 1779 BS (1723 AD).
Who were the parents of Prithvi Narayan Shah?
- A) Ram Shah and Chandraprabhavati
- B) Nara Bhupal Shah and Kaushalyavati ✔
- C) Dravya Shah and Kaushalyavati
- D) Prithvipati Shah and Rajendra Laxmi
Why: He was the son of King Nara Bhupal Shah and Queen Kaushalyavati.
Prithvi Narayan Shah became king of Gorkha in which year?
- A) 1779 BS
- B) 1825 BS
- C) 1831 BS
- D) 1799 BS ✔
Why: He became king in 1799 BS (1743 AD) after his father's death.
Before starting his campaign, Prithvi Narayan Shah visited which city to buy weapons?
- A) Lhasa
- B) Banaras (Varanasi) ✔
- C) Patna
- D) Lucknow
Why: He went to Banaras to buy arms as part of his preparations.
Which place was the first major victory of the unification campaign?
- A) Nuwakot ✔
- B) Kirtipur
- C) Makwanpur
- D) Sindhuli
Why: Gorkha captured Nuwakot in 1801 BS after an earlier failed attempt.
Why was the capture of Nuwakot so important?
- A) It was the capital of the Malla kings
- B) It had the largest army in Nepal
- C) It controlled the trade route between Kathmandu and Tibet ✔
- D) It was the birthplace of Prithvi Narayan Shah
Why: Holding Nuwakot let Gorkha block the valley's trade with Tibet.
Which Gorkhali commander was killed in the first attack on Kirtipur?
- A) Bhimsen Thapa
- B) Amar Singh Thapa
- C) Balbhadra Kunwar
- D) Kalu Pande ✔
Why: Kalu Pande died in the first, unsuccessful attack on Kirtipur.
On which attempt was Kirtipur finally captured?
- A) First
- B) Second
- C) Third ✔
- D) Fifth
Why: Gorkha failed twice and captured Kirtipur on the third attempt in 1823 BS.
The army of Mir Kasim, Nawab of Bengal, was defeated near which place?
- A) Makwanpur ✔
- B) Kirtipur
- C) Nuwakot
- D) Sindhuli
Why: Mir Kasim's army, led by his general Gurgin Khan, was defeated near Makwanpur in Magh 1819 BS (January 1763 AD).
The British force under Captain Kinloch was defeated at which place?
- A) Nalapani
- B) Makwanpur
- C) Sindhuli ✔
- D) Kirtipur
Why: Kinloch's expedition, sent to help Jaya Prakash Malla, was defeated at Sindhuli in 1824 BS (1767 AD).
Kathmandu was captured in 1825 BS during which festival?
- A) Dashain
- B) Bisket Jatra
- C) Gai Jatra
- D) Indra Jatra ✔
Why: The Gorkhali army entered Kathmandu while the city was celebrating Indra Jatra.
Who was the last Malla king of Kathmandu?
- A) Pratap Malla
- B) Jaya Prakash Malla ✔
- C) Ranajit Malla
- D) Tej Narsingh Malla
Why: Jaya Prakash Malla fled when Kathmandu fell to Gorkha in 1825 BS.
Which kingdom of the Kathmandu valley was conquered last, in 1826 BS?
- A) Kathmandu
- B) Lalitpur
- C) Bhaktapur ✔
- D) Kirtipur
Why: Bhaktapur fell in 1826 BS (1769 AD), completing the conquest of the valley.
In the Divya Upadesh, Nepal is described as a yam between two stones. What do the two stones mean?
- A) China and the British East India Company ✔
- B) Tibet and Bhutan
- C) Sikkim and Bengal
- D) The Malla kings and the Sen kings
Why: Nepal lay between the Chinese empire to the north and the British East India Company to the south.
Which idea about the economy is part of the Divya Upadesh?
- A) Import as many foreign goods as possible
- B) Use local products and keep wealth inside the country ✔
- C) Hand trade over to foreign merchants
- D) Stop all farming
Why: Prithvi Narayan Shah advised using local products and discouraging foreign goods and traders.
The phrase common garden of four castes and thirty-six sub-castes expresses which idea?
- A) Foreign policy
- B) Military planning
- C) National unity of all the people ✔
- D) Tax collection
Why: It shows that all the different groups of people together make up one nation.
Where did Prithvi Narayan Shah die in 1831 BS?
- A) Gorkha Durbar
- B) Hanuman Dhoka, Kathmandu
- C) Kirtipur
- D) Devighat, Nuwakot ✔
Why: He died at Devighat in Nuwakot in 1831 BS (1775 AD).
National Unity Day (Rastriya Ekata Diwas) is marked on which date?
- A) Poush 27 ✔
- B) Falgun 7
- C) Jestha 15
- D) Asoj 3
Why: Poush 27, the birth anniversary of Prithvi Narayan Shah, is marked as National Unity Day.
Which treaty fixed Nepal's borders at the Mechi in the east and the Mahakali in the west?
- A) Treaty of Betrawati
- B) Sugauli Treaty ✔
- C) Treaty of Thapathali
- D) Treaty of 1923
Why: After the Anglo-Nepal War, the Sugauli Treaty of 1816 AD reduced Nepal to the land between the Mechi and the Mahakali.
Which districts make up the Naya Muluk returned to Nepal in 1860 AD?
- A) Jhapa, Morang, Sunsari and Saptari
- B) Parsa, Bara, Rautahat and Sarlahi
- C) Banke, Bardiya, Kailali and Kanchanpur ✔
- D) Rupandehi, Kapilvastu, Dang and Banke
Why: The British returned this western Tarai area after Jung Bahadur Rana helped them in 1857.
In the basic working cycle of a computer, what comes between input and output?
- A) Storage
- B) Processing ✔
- C) Booting
- D) Printing
Why: The IPO cycle is Input, Process and Output; the computer processes the data before giving the result.
What does the term GIGO mean in computing?
- A) Good Input Gives Output
- B) Graphic Input Graphic Output
- C) General Input General Output
- D) Garbage In, Garbage Out ✔
Why: GIGO means that if wrong data is entered, the computer will give wrong results.
Who is widely called the father of the computer?
- A) Charles Babbage ✔
- B) Alan Turing
- C) Blaise Pascal
- D) John von Neumann
Why: Charles Babbage designed the Analytical Engine, which had the main ideas of a modern computer.
Which technology was used in first generation computers?
- A) Transistors
- B) Microprocessors
- C) Vacuum tubes ✔
- D) Integrated circuits
Why: First generation computers such as ENIAC used vacuum tubes, which were large and produced much heat.
Integrated Circuits (ICs) were the main technology of which generation of computers?
- A) Second
- B) Third ✔
- C) Fourth
- D) Fifth
Why: The third generation used ICs, which placed many transistors on one small chip.
Fifth generation computers are mainly linked with which idea?
- A) Artificial intelligence ✔
- B) Vacuum tubes
- C) Punched cards only
- D) Mechanical gears
Why: The fifth generation aims at machines with artificial intelligence that can learn and make decisions.
Which of the following is an output device?
- A) Scanner
- B) Keyboard
- C) Barcode reader
- D) Plotter ✔
Why: A plotter gives output by drawing on paper; the others send data into the computer.
Which part of the CPU performs addition and compares two values?
- A) Control Unit
- B) Cache
- C) Arithmetic Logic Unit ✔
- D) Motherboard
Why: The ALU does arithmetic work such as addition and logical work such as comparison.
What is the main job of the Control Unit (CU)?
- A) To direct and coordinate all parts of the computer ✔
- B) To store data permanently
- C) To print the results
- D) To perform all calculations
Why: The CU fetches and decodes instructions and tells other parts what to do; it does not process data itself.
Small, very fast storage places inside the CPU are called what?
- A) Hard disks
- B) Registers ✔
- C) ROM chips
- D) Pen drives
Why: Registers hold the data and instructions the CPU is using at that moment.
Why is RAM called volatile memory?
- A) It can only be read, not written
- B) It is placed outside the computer
- C) It stores data on a disk
- D) Its contents are lost when the power goes off ✔
Why: RAM holds data only while the computer has power; ROM keeps its contents without power.
Where is the start-up program (BIOS) usually stored?
- A) RAM
- B) Cache
- C) ROM ✔
- D) Printer memory
Why: BIOS is kept in ROM, which is non-volatile, so it is available every time the computer starts.
Which memory sits between the CPU and RAM to speed up work?
- A) Hard disk
- B) DVD
- C) Cache memory ✔
- D) Pen drive
Why: Cache memory stores frequently used data so the CPU does not have to wait for slower RAM.
Which of the following is secondary memory?
- A) Solid State Drive (SSD) ✔
- B) Register
- C) RAM
- D) Cache
Why: An SSD stores data permanently in large amounts, which is the role of secondary memory.
How many bits make one byte?
- A) 4
- B) 8 ✔
- C) 16
- D) 1024
Why: One byte equals 8 bits; 4 bits make a nibble.
How many megabytes are there in 2 GB?
- A) 2000
- B) 1024
- C) 512
- D) 2048 ✔
Why: 1 GB = 1024 MB, so 2 GB = 2 × 1024 = 2048 MB.
Which of the following is application software?
- A) A spreadsheet program ✔
- B) An operating system
- C) A device driver
- D) A compiler
Why: A spreadsheet does a particular job for the user; the other three are system software.
Antivirus and disk cleanup programs belong to which type of software?
- A) Application software
- B) Firmware only
- C) Programming languages
- D) Utility software ✔
Why: Utility software helps maintain and protect the computer.
What is the difference between a compiler and an interpreter?
- A) A compiler is hardware and an interpreter is software
- B) A compiler translates the whole program at once; an interpreter translates line by line ✔
- C) An interpreter translates the whole program at once; a compiler works line by line
- D) There is no difference
Why: A compiler translates the whole program in one go, while an interpreter translates and runs it one line at a time.
An operating system is best described as what?
- A) An input device
- B) A type of ROM chip
- C) A bridge between the user and the hardware ✔
- D) An application for typing letters
Why: The OS manages hardware, files and programs and lets the user work with the computer.
Which of the following is an open source operating system?
- A) Linux ✔
- B) MS Word
- C) BIOS
- D) Excel
Why: Linux is open source because its source code is freely available.
What is the base of the hexadecimal number system?
- A) 2
- B) 8
- C) 16 ✔
- D) 10
Why: Hexadecimal uses 16 symbols, 0 to 9 and A to F.
What is decimal 13 written in binary?
- A) 1011
- B) 1101 ✔
- C) 1110
- D) 1001
Why: 13 = 8 + 4 + 0 + 1 = 1 × 8 + 1 × 4 + 0 × 2 + 1 × 1, which is 1101.
What is the full form of USB?
- A) Unified System Bus
- B) Universal Storage Board
- C) User Serial Buffer
- D) Universal Serial Bus ✔
Why: USB stands for Universal Serial Bus, a common way to connect devices to a computer.
The internet is often described by which phrase?
- A) A single large computer
- B) A type of web browser
- C) A network of networks ✔
- D) A local office network
Why: The internet links many computer networks around the world using TCP/IP.
Which statement about the internet and the WWW is correct?
- A) The WWW is a collection of linked web pages reached through the internet ✔
- B) The internet and the WWW are exactly the same thing
- C) The WWW is older than the internet
- D) Email is a part of the WWW
Why: The internet is the global network; the WWW is one service on it made of linked web pages.
In which language are web pages usually written?
- A) SMTP
- B) FTP
- C) TCP
- D) HTML ✔
Why: Web pages are usually written in HTML, HyperText Markup Language.
Which of the following is a web browser, not a search engine?
- A) Google Search
- B) Mozilla Firefox ✔
- C) Bing
- D) Yahoo Search
Why: Firefox is a browser used to open web pages; the others are search services.
What is the main job of a search engine?
- A) To help find information on the web using keywords ✔
- B) To connect a computer to the power supply
- C) To remove viruses from a computer
- D) To send email
Why: A search engine finds web pages that match the keywords you type.
In the address https://www.example.gov.np/notices/result.html, which part is the domain name?
- A) https
- B) /notices/result.html
- C) www.example.gov.np ✔
- D) result.html
Why: The domain name is the website name; https is the protocol and the rest is the path.
How many bits does an IPv4 address use?
- A) 16
- B) 32 ✔
- C) 64
- D) 128
Why: IPv4 uses 32 bits, written as four numbers separated by dots; IPv6 uses 128 bits.
What does DNS do?
- A) Sends email to many people
- B) Blocks viruses
- C) Prints web pages
- D) Changes domain names into IP addresses ✔
Why: The Domain Name System works like a phone book, turning names into IP addresses.
Which is the country code top-level domain of Nepal?
- A) .ne
- B) .nl
- C) .nep
- D) .np ✔
Why: .np is Nepal's country code domain; government sites use .gov.np.
Which protocol sends web pages in encrypted form?
- A) HTTPS ✔
- B) HTTP
- C) FTP
- D) POP3
Why: HTTPS is the secure version of HTTP and encrypts data between the browser and the website.
Which protocol is used mainly to send email?
- A) FTP
- B) HTTP
- C) SMTP ✔
- D) IMAP
Why: SMTP, Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, sends email; POP3 and IMAP are used to receive it.
What is FTP mainly used for?
- A) Encrypting passwords
- B) Uploading and downloading files ✔
- C) Finding web pages
- D) Giving IP addresses
Why: FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol and is used to move files between computers.
A network of computers inside one office building is called what?
- A) WAN
- B) LAN ✔
- C) MAN
- D) The internet
Why: A Local Area Network covers a small area such as a room, office or building.
Which is the best example of a WAN?
- A) Two phones linked by Bluetooth
- B) Computers in one classroom
- C) A printer shared in one office
- D) The internet ✔
Why: A Wide Area Network covers a country or the whole world, and the internet is the largest WAN.
If you want other receivers NOT to see some addresses in an email, which field should you use?
- A) BCC ✔
- B) CC
- C) To
- D) Subject
Why: Addresses in BCC, Blind Carbon Copy, are hidden from the other receivers.
A file such as a photo sent along with an email is called what?
- A) Spam
- B) Draft
- C) Attachment ✔
- D) Inbox
Why: An attachment is a file sent with an email message.
Which malware spreads across networks by itself without needing a host file?
- A) Worm ✔
- B) Virus
- C) Spam
- D) Cookie
Why: A worm copies itself and spreads on its own; a virus needs to attach to a host file.
Malware that locks a victim's files and demands money to unlock them is called what?
- A) Spyware
- B) Ransomware ✔
- C) Trojan horse
- D) Firewall
Why: Ransomware encrypts files and asks for a ransom payment.
A fake email that pretends to be from a bank and asks for your password is an example of what?
- A) Booting
- B) Backup
- C) Compression
- D) Phishing ✔
Why: Phishing uses fake messages or websites that look trusted to steal personal details.
Which of the following is the strongest password?
- A) 123456
- B) password
- C) Nep4l#Sewa92 ✔
- D) your own first name
Why: A strong password mixes capital and small letters, numbers and symbols and is not easy to guess.
What does two-factor authentication add to a login?
- A) A longer user name
- B) A faster internet connection
- C) A free antivirus program
- D) A second proof, such as a code sent to the phone, besides the password ✔
Why: 2FA asks for a second proof, so a stolen password alone is not enough to log in.
Why are regular backups important?
- A) They let you restore data after a disk failure or ransomware attack ✔
- B) They make the internet faster
- C) They remove the need for passwords
- D) They stop all emails
Why: A backup keeps a copy of files so they can be recovered if the originals are lost or locked.
Online company registration with a government office is an example of which type of e-governance?
- A) G2C
- B) G2G
- C) G2B ✔
- D) G2E
Why: G2B means Government to Business, such as online registration of companies.
Which is a basic purpose of Nepal's Electronic Transactions Act, 2063?
- A) To fix the price of computers
- B) To give legal recognition to electronic records and digital signatures ✔
- C) To ban use of the internet in offices
- D) To register political parties
Why: The Act recognizes electronic records and digital signatures and also defines computer-related offences, with an Information Technology Tribunal to hear cases.
In which part of the digestive canal does most digestion and absorption of food take place?
- A) Small intestine ✔
- B) Stomach
- C) Large intestine
- D) Oesophagus
Why: The small intestine is the longest part of the canal, and its villi absorb most of the digested food.
Which organ is the largest gland of the body and makes bile?
- A) Pancreas
- B) Gall bladder
- C) Liver ✔
- D) Thyroid
Why: The liver is the largest gland; it makes bile, which is stored in the gall bladder.
Where in the lungs does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place?
- A) Trachea
- B) Alveoli ✔
- C) Larynx
- D) Diaphragm
Why: The tiny air sacs called alveoli are where oxygen enters the blood and carbon dioxide leaves it.
What is the diaphragm?
- A) A gland in the neck
- B) A part of the brain
- C) A valve of the heart
- D) A dome-shaped muscle below the lungs that helps breathing ✔
Why: The diaphragm moves down when we breathe in and up when we breathe out.
How many chambers does the human heart have?
- A) Two
- B) Three
- C) Four ✔
- D) Five
Why: The heart has two upper atria and two lower ventricles.
Which blood vessel carries oxygen-poor blood from the heart to the lungs?
- A) Pulmonary artery ✔
- B) Pulmonary vein
- C) Capillary of the skin
- D) Main vein of the leg
Why: The pulmonary artery is the exception among arteries because it carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.
Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination of movements?
- A) Cerebrum
- B) Medulla oblongata
- C) Spinal cord
- D) Cerebellum ✔
Why: The cerebellum keeps the body balanced and coordinates movements.
Involuntary actions such as heartbeat and breathing are controlled by which part?
- A) Cerebrum
- B) Medulla oblongata ✔
- C) Cerebellum
- D) Thyroid
Why: The medulla oblongata controls involuntary actions like heartbeat and breathing.
What is the working unit of the kidney?
- A) Neuron
- B) Nephron ✔
- C) Alveolus
- D) Villus
Why: Each kidney has many nephrons that filter blood and form urine.
Cleaning the blood with a machine when both kidneys fail is called what?
- A) Transfusion
- B) Vaccination
- C) Dialysis ✔
- D) Respiration
Why: Dialysis removes waste from the blood when the kidneys can no longer do it.
How many bones are there in the body of an adult human?
- A) 206 ✔
- B) 212
- C) 196
- D) 300
Why: An adult human skeleton has 206 bones.
Which is the smallest bone of the human body?
- A) Femur
- B) Rib
- C) Skull bone
- D) Stapes ✔
Why: The stapes, in the middle ear, is the smallest bone; the femur is the longest.
Which substance in red blood cells carries oxygen?
- A) Plasma
- B) Insulin
- C) Bile
- D) Haemoglobin ✔
Why: Haemoglobin is an iron-containing protein in RBCs that carries oxygen.
Which blood group is called the universal donor?
- A) AB positive
- B) O negative ✔
- C) A positive
- D) B negative
Why: O negative red cells can be given to people of any group in an emergency.
Which part of the blood helps it to clot at a wound?
- A) Platelets ✔
- B) Red blood cells
- C) Plasma
- D) Haemoglobin
Why: Platelets help form a clot that stops bleeding.
Which gland is called the master gland?
- A) Thyroid
- B) Adrenal
- C) Pituitary ✔
- D) Pancreas
Why: The pituitary controls the working of many other glands, so it is called the master gland.
Lack of which hormone causes diabetes?
- A) Adrenaline
- B) Thyroxine
- C) Insulin ✔
- D) Testosterone
Why: Insulin from the pancreas lowers blood sugar; when it is lacking or not used properly, diabetes results.
Which hormone is known as the fight or flight hormone?
- A) Oestrogen
- B) Thyroxine
- C) Growth hormone
- D) Adrenaline ✔
Why: Adrenaline from the adrenal gland prepares the body to face emergencies.
Bleeding gums caused by scurvy are due to lack of which vitamin?
- A) Vitamin C ✔
- B) Vitamin A
- C) Vitamin D
- D) Vitamin K
Why: Vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy; lemon, orange and amla are good sources.
Rickets in children is caused by deficiency of which vitamin?
- A) Vitamin B1
- B) Vitamin D ✔
- C) Vitamin C
- D) Vitamin A
Why: Lack of vitamin D weakens bones and causes rickets; sunlight helps the body make vitamin D.
Goitre is caused by lack of which mineral in the diet?
- A) Iron
- B) Calcium
- C) Sodium
- D) Iodine ✔
Why: The thyroid needs iodine to make thyroxine; lack of iodine causes goitre.
Which group contains only fat-soluble vitamins?
- A) A, D, E and K ✔
- B) B and C
- C) A, B, C and D
- D) C, D, E and K
Why: Vitamins A, D, E and K dissolve in fat; vitamins B and C dissolve in water.
Malaria is caused by which kind of organism?
- A) Bacteria
- B) Virus
- C) Protozoa ✔
- D) Fungus
Why: Malaria is caused by a protozoan parasite spread by the female Anopheles mosquito.
Dengue is spread by which mosquito?
- A) Anopheles
- B) Aedes ✔
- C) Culex
- D) Sandfly
Why: Dengue, a viral disease, is spread by the Aedes mosquito; sandflies spread kala-azar.
What is the correct first aid for a minor burn?
- A) Hold it under cool, clean running water for several minutes ✔
- B) Apply toothpaste on it
- C) Rub oil on it
- D) Put ice directly on it
Why: Cool running water reduces heat and pain; toothpaste, oil and ice can harm the skin.
On which date was the Public Service Commission of Nepal established?
- A) 1 Asar 2008 BS ✔
- B) 1 Baisakh 2007 BS
- C) 3 Asoj 2072 BS
- D) 15 Jestha 2015 BS
Why: The Lok Sewa Aayog was set up on 1 Asar 2008 BS, which falls in June 1951 AD.
The establishment year of the PSC, 2008 BS, corresponds to which AD year?
- A) 1947
- B) 1951 ✔
- C) 1959
- D) 1962
Why: 1 Asar 2008 BS falls in June 1951 AD.
Where is the central office of the Public Service Commission located?
- A) Singha Durbar
- B) Babarmahal
- C) Kamalpokhari, Kathmandu ✔
- D) Lalitpur
Why: The central office of the PSC is at Kamalpokhari in Kathmandu.
Which Part of the Constitution of Nepal 2072 deals with the Public Service Commission?
- A) Part 3
- B) Part 21
- C) Part 25
- D) Part 23 ✔
Why: Part 23 of the Constitution, covering Articles 242 to 244, deals with the Public Service Commission.
The PSC is called a constitutional body. What does this mainly mean?
- A) It is formed by a decision of the Cabinet
- B) It is created by the Constitution itself, which gives it independence ✔
- C) It is a branch of the Ministry of Home Affairs
- D) It is registered as a company
Why: A constitutional body owes its existence to the Constitution, not to an ordinary law, which protects its independence.
Which Article of the Constitution of Nepal 2072 lays down the functions, duties and powers of the PSC?
- A) Article 243 ✔
- B) Article 242
- C) Article 244
- D) Article 27
Why: Article 242 covers composition and appointment, Article 243 covers functions, duties and powers, and Article 244 covers provincial commissions.
How many office holders does the Public Service Commission have in total?
- A) Three
- B) Seven
- C) Nine
- D) Five ✔
Why: It has a Chairperson and four other members, which makes five.
Who appoints the Chairperson and members of the PSC?
- A) The Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet
- B) The Speaker of the House of Representatives
- C) The President on the recommendation of the Constitutional Council ✔
- D) The Chief Justice
Why: Under Article 242 the President appoints them on the recommendation of the Constitutional Council.
At least what share of PSC members must come from people with twenty or more years of government service?
- A) Fifty percent ✔
- B) Twenty five percent
- C) One third
- D) Seventy five percent
Why: At least fifty percent of members must have served in government for twenty years or more.
What is the term of office of the Chairperson and members of the PSC?
- A) Four years
- B) Five years
- C) Six years ✔
- D) Until the age of 60
Why: The term is six years from the date of appointment.
Which statement about reappointment to the PSC is correct?
- A) A member may be reappointed for any number of terms
- B) No reappointment is allowed, but a member may be appointed as Chairperson ✔
- C) Only the Chairperson may be reappointed once
- D) Reappointment needs a two-thirds vote of Parliament
Why: Reappointment is not allowed, though a member may become Chairperson, with the time already served counted in the term.
What minimum age is required for appointment as Chairperson or member of the PSC?
- A) 35 years
- B) 40 years
- C) 50 years
- D) 45 years ✔
Why: A person must be at least 45 years old to be appointed.
Which educational qualification is required for appointment as a PSC member?
- A) School Leaving Certificate
- B) A bachelor's degree in law only
- C) A master's degree from a recognised university ✔
- D) A doctorate from a foreign university
Why: The Constitution requires a master's degree from a recognised university.
At what age does the office of a PSC Chairperson or member become vacant?
- A) 65 years ✔
- B) 58 years
- C) 60 years
- D) 70 years
Why: The office becomes vacant when the holder reaches 65 years of age.
Which of the following is NOT a ground on which the office of a PSC member becomes vacant?
- A) Resignation in writing to the President
- B) Loss of a general election held by a political party ✔
- C) Removal by impeachment
- D) Death
Why: The grounds are resignation, reaching age 65, impeachment and death; party elections have nothing to do with it.
For which of the following does the PSC conduct only the written examination?
- A) Federal civil service posts
- B) Posts of judges of the Supreme Court
- C) Members of the Provincial Assembly
- D) Posts in the Nepal Army, Nepal Police and Armed Police Force ✔
Why: The PSC holds written examinations for the security services, while the rest of their selection follows their own laws.
The PSC must be consulted on which of the following matters?
- A) Principles of appointment, promotion and departmental action in the civil service ✔
- B) The annual budget of each ministry
- C) The foreign policy of Nepal
- D) Election of the President
Why: Article 243 requires consultation with the PSC on principles of appointment, promotion and departmental action, among other service matters.
Without the recommendation of the PSC, which of the following cannot be made?
- A) A temporary daily-wage contract
- B) Transfer of a minister
- C) Appointment of an ambassador
- D) A permanent appointment to a pensionable civil service post ✔
Why: No permanent appointment to a pensionable civil service post may be made without the PSC recommendation.
To whom does the Public Service Commission submit its annual report?
- A) The Prime Minister
- B) The President ✔
- C) The Chief Justice
- D) The Constitutional Council
Why: The PSC prepares an annual report of its work and submits it to the President.
Under the Constitution of Nepal 2072, which Article provides for a Provincial Public Service Commission in each province?
- A) Article 242
- B) Article 232
- C) Article 244 ✔
- D) Article 251
Why: Article 244 provides for a Provincial Public Service Commission in each province.
The formation and functions of a Provincial Public Service Commission are set by provincial law within the basis and standards set by what?
- A) A decision of the Chief Minister
- B) An order of the Supreme Court
- C) A rule made by the district office
- D) A federal law ✔
Why: Provincial law decides these matters, but it must follow the basis and standards laid down by federal law.
In the PSC recruitment process, what usually comes first?
- A) Advertisement of the vacant posts ✔
- B) Interview
- C) Main written examination
- D) Recommendation to the appointing body
Why: After receiving the demand of posts, the PSC first advertises them with qualifications, syllabus and deadlines.
Which is the correct general order of PSC recruitment?
- A) Interview, advertisement, written exam, recommendation
- B) Written exam, advertisement, recommendation, interview
- C) Advertisement, written exam, interview, recommendation ✔
- D) Recommendation, interview, written exam, advertisement
Why: The PSC advertises, holds written exams, interviews those who pass and then recommends candidates by merit.
After the final result is published, what does the PSC do with the successful candidates?
- A) It appoints them to posts itself
- B) It recommends them to the body that will appoint them ✔
- C) It sends them for a second written exam
- D) It forwards their names to the Constitutional Council
Why: The PSC publishes a merit list and recommends the successful candidates to the appointing body.
What is the SI unit of mass?
- A) Gram
- B) Kilogram ✔
- C) Newton
- D) Pound
Why: Kilogram is one of the seven SI base units; newton is the unit of force, not mass.
Which of these is NOT one of the seven SI base units?
- A) Ampere
- B) Candela
- C) Mole
- D) Joule ✔
Why: Joule is a derived unit of energy; ampere, candela and mole are all base units.
Pascal is the SI unit of which quantity?
- A) Pressure ✔
- B) Power
- C) Frequency
- D) Charge
Why: Pressure = force ÷ area, and its SI unit is the pascal (1 newton per square metre).
The hertz (Hz) measures what?
- A) Resistance
- B) Energy
- C) Frequency ✔
- D) Force
Why: One hertz means one cycle or vibration per second.
Which of the following is a vector quantity?
- A) Velocity ✔
- B) Speed
- C) Mass
- D) Time
Why: Velocity has both size and direction, so it is a vector; speed has size only.
A bus moves at 72 km/h. What is its speed in m/s?
- A) 15 m/s
- B) 36 m/s
- C) 20 m/s ✔
- D) 25 m/s
Why: Multiply by 5/18: 72 × 5/18 = 20 m/s.
Standing passengers lean forward when a moving bus stops suddenly. Which law explains this?
- A) Newton's third law
- B) Newton's first law (inertia) ✔
- C) Ohm's law
- D) Law of reflection
Why: Their bodies tend to keep moving because of inertia, as stated in Newton's first law.
A force of 10 N acts on a trolley of mass 2 kg. What is its acceleration?
- A) 20 m/s²
- B) 12 m/s²
- C) 8 m/s²
- D) 5 m/s² ✔
Why: From F = m × a, a = F ÷ m = 10 ÷ 2 = 5 m/s².
The backward movement (recoil) of a gun when it is fired is an example of which law?
- A) Newton's first law
- B) Newton's third law ✔
- C) Law of conservation of mass
- D) Newton's second law
Why: The bullet is pushed forward and the gun is pushed back with an equal and opposite reaction.
What is the approximate value of g near the Earth's surface?
- A) 9.8 m/s² ✔
- B) 98 m/s²
- C) 1.6 m/s²
- D) 3 m/s²
Why: The acceleration due to gravity near the Earth's surface is about 9.8 m/s².
A person has a mass of 60 kg on Earth. What is the mass on the Moon?
- A) 10 kg
- B) 360 kg
- C) Zero
- D) 60 kg ✔
Why: Mass is the amount of matter and stays the same everywhere; only weight changes.
In which unit is weight measured?
- A) Kilogram
- B) Joule
- C) Newton ✔
- D) Watt
Why: Weight is a force (mass × g), so its SI unit is the newton.
A man pushes hard against a wall but the wall does not move. How much work does he do in physics?
- A) Zero ✔
- B) Equal to his weight
- C) Very large
- D) Equal to the force applied
Why: Work = force × distance moved; since the wall does not move, the work done is zero.
Water stored behind a dam mainly has which type of energy?
- A) Kinetic energy
- B) Potential energy ✔
- C) Sound energy
- D) Light energy
Why: The water has energy because of its height, which is potential energy (PE = mgh).
The idea that energy cannot be created or destroyed but only changed in form is called what?
- A) Newton's second law
- B) Ohm's law
- C) Law of conservation of energy ✔
- D) Law of inertia
Why: This is the law of conservation of energy, seen for example in a hydropower plant.
A machine does 600 J of work in 3 seconds. What is its power?
- A) 1800 W
- B) 603 W
- C) 300 W
- D) 200 W ✔
Why: Power = work ÷ time = 600 ÷ 3 = 200 W.
Why does a sharp knife cut better than a blunt one?
- A) It is heavier
- B) It has more mass
- C) It has less friction with air
- D) It puts the force on a smaller area, giving more pressure ✔
Why: Pressure = force ÷ area, so a thin edge produces greater pressure for the same force.
A 12 V battery is connected across a 4 Ω resistor. What current flows?
- A) 3 A ✔
- B) 48 A
- C) 16 A
- D) 8 A
Why: By Ohm's law, I = V ÷ R = 12 ÷ 4 = 3 A.
Normal human body temperature is 37 °C. What is it in Fahrenheit?
- A) 37 °F
- B) 310 °F
- C) 98.6 °F ✔
- D) 66.6 °F
Why: F = 9/5 × 37 + 32 = 66.6 + 32 = 98.6 °F.
Why does water boil below 100 °C in the high mountain areas of Nepal?
- A) The water there is purer
- B) The air pressure there is lower ✔
- C) The Sun is closer
- D) The air pressure there is higher
Why: Lower air pressure at height lowers the boiling point; a pressure cooker raises it again.
A person cannot see far objects clearly. Which defect is this and which lens corrects it?
- A) Hypermetropia, convex lens
- B) Myopia, convex lens
- C) Myopia, concave lens ✔
- D) Hypermetropia, concave lens
Why: In myopia the image forms in front of the retina, and a concave lens corrects it.
A rainbow is formed mainly because of which process?
- A) Dispersion of sunlight by raindrops ✔
- B) Reflection from clouds only
- C) Absorption of light by air
- D) Echo of light
Why: Raindrops split white sunlight into seven colours through refraction and reflection, which is dispersion.
Through which medium does sound travel fastest?
- A) Vacuum
- B) Air
- C) Water
- D) Steel ✔
Why: Sound travels fastest in solids such as steel and cannot travel through a vacuum at all.
A 100 W bulb is used for 10 hours. How much electrical energy does it use?
- A) 10 kWh
- B) 1 kWh ✔
- C) 0.1 kWh
- D) 1000 kWh
Why: 100 W × 10 h = 1000 Wh = 1 kWh, which is one unit on the bill.
Under the Constitution of Nepal 2072, how many main levels of government does the federal structure have?
- A) Two
- B) Three ✔
- C) Four
- D) Five
Why: Article 56 sets up three levels: federal, provincial and local.
Which schedule of the Constitution of Nepal lists the seven provinces and their districts?
- A) Schedule 2
- B) Schedule 6
- C) Schedule 4 ✔
- D) Schedule 8
Why: Schedule 4 names the provinces and the districts included in each.
The powers of the local levels are listed in which schedule of the constitution?
- A) Schedule 5
- B) Schedule 6
- C) Schedule 7
- D) Schedule 8 ✔
Why: Schedule 8 lists local level powers; Schedule 5 is federal and Schedule 6 is provincial.
How did each province decide its permanent name and capital?
- A) By a two-thirds vote of its Provincial Assembly ✔
- B) By a decision of the federal cabinet
- C) By a national referendum
- D) By order of the President
Why: Each Provincial Assembly fixed its name (Article 295(2)) and capital (Article 288(2)) by a two-thirds majority.
What is the capital of Koshi Province?
- A) Dharan
- B) Biratnagar ✔
- C) Itahari
- D) Ilam
Why: Biratnagar in Morang district is the capital of Koshi Province.
Hetauda is the capital of which province?
- A) Madhesh
- B) Gandaki
- C) Bagmati ✔
- D) Lumbini
Why: Hetauda in Makwanpur district is the capital of Bagmati Province.
Birendranagar, in Surkhet district, is the capital of which province?
- A) Sudurpashchim
- B) Lumbini
- C) Gandaki
- D) Karnali ✔
Why: Birendranagar (Surkhet) is the capital of Karnali Province.
Which province has the largest number of districts?
- A) Koshi ✔
- B) Bagmati
- C) Lumbini
- D) Gandaki
Why: Koshi Province has 14 districts, more than any other province.
How many districts are there in Madhesh Province?
- A) 7
- B) 8 ✔
- C) 9
- D) 10
Why: Madhesh has 8 districts, all in the Tarai, the fewest of any province.
Which is the largest province of Nepal by area?
- A) Koshi
- B) Lumbini
- C) Karnali ✔
- D) Gandaki
Why: Karnali, at about 27,984 sq km, is the largest province by area.
Which province was the first to get its permanent name?
- A) Gandaki
- B) Bagmati
- C) Sudurpashchim
- D) Karnali ✔
Why: Province No. 6 was named Karnali in 2074 BS, before any other province.
In which year was Province No. 2 named Madhesh?
- A) 2078 BS ✔
- B) 2075 BS
- C) 2076 BS
- D) 2079 BS
Why: The Provincial Assembly named it Madhesh on 3 Magh 2078 BS.
Province No. 1 was given the name Koshi in which year?
- A) 2077 BS
- B) 2079 BS ✔
- C) 2074 BS
- D) 2078 BS
Why: Province No. 1 became Koshi Province on 17 Falgun 2079 BS, making it the last province to be named.
Which city served as the temporary capital of Province No. 5 before Deukhuri was chosen?
- A) Nepalgunj
- B) Tansen
- C) Butwal ✔
- D) Ghorahi
Why: Butwal was the temporary capital until the assembly chose Deukhuri in Dang as the capital.
Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga both lie in which province?
- A) Bagmati
- B) Koshi ✔
- C) Gandaki
- D) Madhesh
Why: Everest is in Solukhumbu and Kanchenjunga is in Taplejung, both districts of Koshi Province.
Which statement about Madhesh Province is correct?
- A) It is the largest province by area
- B) It contains the Himalayan district of Dolakha
- C) Its capital is Birgunj
- D) All of its districts lie in the Tarai ✔
Why: Madhesh has eight districts, all of them in the flat Tarai; its capital is Janakpur.
Which is the smallest district of Nepal by area, found in Bagmati Province?
- A) Bhaktapur ✔
- B) Kathmandu
- C) Lalitpur
- D) Rasuwa
Why: Bhaktapur, in Bagmati Province, is the smallest district of Nepal.
Manang, Mustang and Muktinath are associated with which province?
- A) Gandaki ✔
- B) Karnali
- C) Lumbini
- D) Bagmati
Why: Manang and Mustang are districts of Gandaki Province, and Muktinath lies in Mustang.
The birthplace of Gautam Buddha, which gives a province its name, lies in which district?
- A) Kapilvastu
- B) Palpa
- C) Dang
- D) Rupandehi ✔
Why: Lumbini, the birthplace of Buddha, is in Rupandehi district of Lumbini Province.
Rara Lake and Dolpa, the largest district of Nepal, are both in which province?
- A) Sudurpashchim
- B) Gandaki
- C) Karnali ✔
- D) Lumbini
Why: Rara Lake (Mugu) and Dolpa district are both in Karnali Province.
What is the capital of Sudurpashchim Province?
- A) Dadeldhura
- B) Godawari ✔
- C) Mahendranagar
- D) Dipayal
Why: The Provincial Assembly chose Godawari in Kailali district as the capital of Sudurpashchim.
Why does Nepal now have 77 districts instead of 75?
- A) Kathmandu and Morang were each divided into two
- B) Two new districts were created in the Himalaya
- C) Nawalparasi and Rukum were each split between two provinces ✔
- D) Two districts were added from the Tarai to Madhesh
Why: Nawalparasi was split between Gandaki and Lumbini, and Rukum between Lumbini and Karnali, raising the total to 77.
How many local levels does Nepal have in total?
- A) 744
- B) 753 ✔
- C) 775
- D) 460
Why: There are 753 local levels: 6 metropolitan, 11 sub-metropolitan, 276 municipalities and 460 rural municipalities.
How many sub-metropolitan cities are there in Nepal?
- A) 6
- B) 9
- C) 13
- D) 11 ✔
Why: Nepal has 11 sub-metropolitan cities among its 753 local levels.
Who appoints the Chief Minister of a province?
- A) The Province Head ✔
- B) The Speaker of the Provincial Assembly
- C) The Prime Minister
- D) The Chief Justice
Why: The Province Head, who is appointed by the President, appoints the Chief Minister, usually the leader of the majority in the Provincial Assembly.
Naphthalene balls kept in clothes slowly disappear without leaving any liquid. What is this change called?
- A) Evaporation
- B) Sublimation ✔
- C) Condensation
- D) Melting
Why: A solid that turns directly into gas without becoming a liquid undergoes sublimation, like camphor and iodine.
Which state of matter has a fixed volume but takes the shape of its container?
- A) Liquid ✔
- B) Solid
- C) Gas
- D) Plasma
Why: A liquid keeps its volume but flows to take the shape of whatever holds it.
Which of the following is a compound?
- A) Air
- B) Oxygen
- C) Water ✔
- D) Soil
Why: Water is formed when hydrogen and oxygen combine chemically in a fixed ratio; air and soil are mixtures and oxygen is an element.
Which method is used to get pure drinking water from salty water?
- A) Filtration
- B) Decantation
- C) Using a magnet
- D) Distillation ✔
Why: In distillation the water is boiled and its vapour is cooled back into pure water, leaving the salt behind.
Which particle of an atom carries a negative charge?
- A) Proton
- B) Electron ✔
- C) Neutron
- D) Nucleus
Why: Electrons are negatively charged and move around the nucleus; protons are positive and neutrons have no charge.
Who discovered the neutron?
- A) J. J. Thomson
- B) John Dalton
- C) James Chadwick ✔
- D) Niels Bohr
Why: James Chadwick discovered the neutron in 1932; J. J. Thomson discovered the electron in 1897.
An atom of sodium has atomic number 11 and mass number 23. How many neutrons does it have?
- A) 12 ✔
- B) 11
- C) 23
- D) 34
Why: Neutrons = mass number − atomic number = 23 − 11 = 12.
Atoms of the same element having the same atomic number but different mass numbers are called what?
- A) Compounds
- B) Alloys
- C) Ions
- D) Isotopes ✔
Why: Isotopes differ only in the number of neutrons; protium, deuterium and tritium are isotopes of hydrogen.
Which acid is found in curd?
- A) Lactic acid ✔
- B) Citric acid
- C) Acetic acid
- D) Tartaric acid
Why: Curd and sour milk contain lactic acid; citric acid is in lemon and acetic acid in vinegar.
The sting of an ant or of a nettle (sisnu) plant contains which acid?
- A) Malic acid
- B) Formic acid ✔
- C) Hydrochloric acid
- D) Oxalic acid
Why: Ant and nettle stings inject formic acid, which causes the burning pain.
What is formed when an acid reacts with a base?
- A) Only gas
- B) Only acid
- C) A metal and oxygen
- D) Salt and water ✔
Why: This reaction is called neutralization and its products are salt and water.
Milk of magnesia is taken to relieve acidity in the stomach. Why does it work?
- A) It is a strong acid
- B) It is neutral like water
- C) It is a base that neutralizes extra stomach acid ✔
- D) It kills all stomach germs
Why: Milk of magnesia (magnesium hydroxide) is a base, so it neutralizes excess hydrochloric acid in the stomach.
A solution has a pH of 3. What is its nature?
- A) Basic
- B) Acidic ✔
- C) Neutral
- D) Strongly basic
Why: Any pH less than 7 is acidic, so a pH of 3 shows an acidic solution.
The pH of human blood is about how much?
- A) 7.4 ✔
- B) 2
- C) 5
- D) 12
Why: Blood is slightly basic with a pH of about 7.4.
What colour does phenolphthalein show in a basic solution?
- A) Red
- B) Colourless
- C) Pink ✔
- D) Yellow
Why: Phenolphthalein stays colourless in acid and turns pink in a base.
Litmus, a common indicator, is obtained from what?
- A) Turmeric
- B) Red cabbage
- C) Rose petals
- D) Lichens ✔
Why: Litmus is a natural dye taken from lichens.
Which is the only metal that is liquid at room temperature?
- A) Sodium
- B) Bromine
- C) Mercury ✔
- D) Aluminium
Why: Mercury is the liquid metal; bromine is also liquid but it is a non-metal.
Which non-metal is a good conductor of electricity?
- A) Graphite ✔
- B) Sulphur
- C) Iodine
- D) Diamond
Why: Graphite, a form of carbon, conducts electricity even though it is a non-metal; diamond does not.
Why are sodium and potassium kept under kerosene?
- A) To make them shiny
- B) Because they react strongly with air and water ✔
- C) To keep them cool
- D) To make them soft
Why: These metals react quickly with moisture and oxygen in air, so kerosene keeps air and water away from them.
Brass is an alloy of which metals?
- A) Copper and tin
- B) Iron and carbon
- C) Iron and chromium
- D) Copper and zinc ✔
Why: Brass is made of copper and zinc; bronze is copper and tin.
What is the chemical formula of baking soda?
- A) NaHCO₃ ✔
- B) Na₂CO₃
- C) NaCl
- D) NaOH
Why: Baking soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate, NaHCO₃; Na₂CO₃ is sodium carbonate (washing soda without its water) and NaOH is caustic soda.
Which substance is used to set broken bones and make statues?
- A) Bleaching powder
- B) Quicklime
- C) Plaster of Paris ✔
- D) Washing soda
Why: Plaster of Paris (CaSO₄·½H₂O) sets hard when mixed with water, so it is used for casts and statues.
What is the chemical name of quicklime?
- A) Calcium carbonate
- B) Calcium oxide ✔
- C) Calcium hydroxide
- D) Calcium sulphate
Why: Quicklime is calcium oxide (CaO); calcium hydroxide is slaked lime and calcium carbonate is limestone.
Galvanization protects iron from rusting by coating it with which metal?
- A) Tin
- B) Copper
- C) Silver
- D) Zinc ✔
Why: In galvanization a layer of zinc covers the iron, as on galvanized roofing sheets.
Biogas (gobar gas) used for cooking in Nepali villages is mainly made of which gas?
- A) Butane
- B) Carbon monoxide
- C) Methane ✔
- D) Nitrogen
Why: Biogas is mainly methane; LPG in cylinders is mainly butane and propane.
In an ecosystem, which organisms break down dead plants and animals and return nutrients to the soil?
- A) Producers
- B) Herbivores
- C) Decomposers ✔
- D) Carnivores
Why: Decomposers such as bacteria and fungi break down dead bodies and recycle nutrients.
Which of the following is an abiotic component of an ecosystem?
- A) Sunlight ✔
- B) Fungi
- C) Grass
- D) Deer
Why: Abiotic components are the non-living parts such as sunlight, air, water and soil.
In the food chain grass → deer → tiger, what is the deer?
- A) Producer
- B) Primary consumer (herbivore) ✔
- C) Decomposer
- D) Top carnivore
Why: The deer eats the producer (grass) directly, so it is a herbivore or primary consumer.
According to the ten percent law, about how much energy passes from one trophic level to the next?
- A) 50 percent
- B) 90 percent
- C) 100 percent
- D) 10 percent ✔
Why: Only about 10 percent of energy moves to the next level; the rest is used up or lost as heat.
Many local types of rice within one species show which level of biodiversity?
- A) Genetic diversity ✔
- B) Species diversity
- C) Ecosystem diversity
- D) Habitat loss
Why: Variety within a single species is genetic diversity.
Keeping wild animals in a zoo or seeds in a seed bank is an example of what?
- A) In situ conservation
- B) Poaching
- C) Ex situ conservation ✔
- D) Habitat destruction
Why: Ex situ conservation protects species outside their natural homes; national parks are in situ.
Which is Nepal's first national park, established in 1973?
- A) Sagarmatha National Park
- B) Chitwan National Park ✔
- C) Bardiya National Park
- D) Langtang National Park
Why: Chitwan National Park, set up in 1973, was the first national park of Nepal.
Which gases mainly cause acid rain?
- A) Oxygen and nitrogen
- B) Helium and argon
- C) Methane and water vapour
- D) Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides ✔
Why: Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides from burning fuel dissolve in rainwater and make it acidic.
In which unit is the loudness of noise measured?
- A) Hertz
- B) Decibel ✔
- C) Dobson unit
- D) Pascal
Why: Loudness of sound is measured in decibels (dB); Dobson units measure ozone.
Heavy growth of algae in a lake because of too many nutrients from fertilizer and sewage is called what?
- A) Eutrophication ✔
- B) Sublimation
- C) Desertification
- D) Ozone depletion
Why: Excess nutrients cause eutrophication; the algae use up oxygen and fish die.
Which serious groundwater problem is found in some parts of the Terai?
- A) Excess ozone
- B) Radioactive water
- C) Arsenic contamination ✔
- D) Too much oxygen
Why: Arsenic in groundwater is a known health problem in some Terai areas.
What does the ozone layer protect us from?
- A) Ultraviolet rays of the Sun ✔
- B) Visible light
- C) Rainwater
- D) Radio waves
Why: The ozone layer absorbs most of the Sun's harmful UV rays that cause skin cancer and cataracts.
CFCs harm the ozone layer by releasing which element in the stratosphere?
- A) Oxygen
- B) Chlorine ✔
- C) Carbon
- D) Nitrogen
Why: Sunlight breaks CFC molecules and frees chlorine atoms, which destroy ozone molecules.
Which of these is NOT a greenhouse gas?
- A) Carbon dioxide
- B) Methane
- C) Nitrous oxide
- D) Nitrogen ✔
Why: Carbon dioxide, methane and nitrous oxide trap heat; nitrogen, the main gas of air, does not.
Paddy fields, cattle and rubbish dumps release which greenhouse gas?
- A) Ozone
- B) Carbon monoxide
- C) Methane ✔
- D) Nitrous oxide
Why: Methane is produced in paddy fields, by cattle and in rubbish dumps.
What is the rise in the average temperature of the Earth due to extra greenhouse gases called?
- A) Global warming ✔
- B) Ozone hole
- C) Acid rain
- D) Eutrophication
Why: More greenhouse gases trap more heat, raising the Earth's average temperature; this is global warming.
What does GLOF stand for?
- A) Global Land Ozone Flow
- B) Green Land Of Forests
- C) Great Lake Overflow Fund
- D) Glacial Lake Outburst Flood ✔
Why: A GLOF is a sudden flood when the wall holding back a glacial lake breaks.
Tsho Rolpa, one of Nepal's most dangerous glacial lakes, is in which district?
- A) Solukhumbu
- B) Dolakha ✔
- C) Mustang
- D) Rasuwa
Why: Tsho Rolpa lies in Dolakha; its level was lowered by about 3 metres in 2000 to reduce the GLOF risk.
The Government of Nepal held a cabinet meeting at Kalapatthar in December 2009 mainly to do what?
- A) Celebrate a new constitution
- B) Open a hydropower plant
- C) Draw world attention to climate change ✔
- D) Plan a mountaineering expedition
Why: The meeting near Everest base camp, held before the Copenhagen conference, highlighted the threat of climate change to the Himalaya.
The well-known definition of sustainable development comes from which report of 1987?
- A) Kyoto Report
- B) Stockholm Report
- C) Agenda 21
- D) Brundtland Report (Our Common Future) ✔
Why: The Brundtland Report, "Our Common Future", defined sustainable development in 1987.
How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted by the United Nations in 2015?
- A) 17 ✔
- B) 8
- C) 21
- D) 13
Why: There are 17 SDGs to be achieved by 2030; goal 13 is climate action.
The Montreal Protocol of 1987 is related to which issue?
- A) Protection of wetlands
- B) Trade in endangered animals
- C) Protection of the ozone layer ✔
- D) Desertification
Why: The Montreal Protocol phases out CFCs and other substances that deplete the ozone layer.
In which year was the Paris Agreement on climate change adopted?
- A) 1997
- B) 2015 ✔
- C) 1992
- D) 2005
Why: The Paris Agreement was adopted at COP21 in 2015; 1997 is the Kyoto Protocol and 1992 the UNFCCC.
World Environment Day is celebrated every year on which date?
- A) 5 June ✔
- B) 22 April
- C) 16 September
- D) 22 March
Why: World Environment Day is 5 June; 22 April is Earth Day, 16 September is Ozone Day and 22 March is Water Day.
In which year was the National Parks and Wildlife Conservation Act of Nepal made?
- A) 2019 BS
- B) 2029 BS ✔
- C) 2037 BS
- D) 2049 BS
Why: The Act was made in 2029 BS (1973 AD), and Chitwan National Park followed in 2030 BS.
Which was the first national park of Nepal?
- A) Sagarmatha National Park
- B) Langtang National Park
- C) Chitwan National Park ✔
- D) Rara National Park
Why: Chitwan National Park was established in 2030 BS (1973 AD), before any other park.
How many national parks does Nepal have after the creation of Chhayanath National Park?
- A) 13 ✔
- B) 12
- C) 11
- D) 14
Why: Nepal had 12 national parks until Chhayanath in Mugu was added in 2082 BS, making 13.
In the protected-area system of Nepal, what is the main purpose of a buffer zone?
- A) To allow licensed hunting of blue sheep
- B) To serve as a military training ground
- C) To keep all people out of the forest at all times
- D) To let local communities use resources in a managed way and share park income ✔
Why: Buffer zones surround parks and reserves so that local people can use forest resources under rules and receive part of the park's income.
Roughly what share of Nepal's land is covered by protected areas?
- A) About 10 percent
- B) About 15 percent
- C) A little more than 23 percent ✔
- D) About 40 percent
Why: Protected areas together cover a little more than 23 percent of the country, nearly one-fourth.
Which national park lies entirely in Kanchanpur district and is famous for the largest herd of swamp deer?
- A) Shuklaphanta ✔
- B) Bardiya
- C) Banke
- D) Khaptad
Why: Shuklaphanta National Park in Kanchanpur is known for its large herd of swamp deer (barasingha).
Which two wildlife reserves were upgraded to national parks in 2073 BS?
- A) Koshi Tappu and Parsa
- B) Shuklaphanta and Parsa ✔
- C) Bardiya and Banke
- D) Koshi Tappu and Shuklaphanta
Why: Shuklaphanta and Parsa were upgraded in 2073 BS (2017 AD), leaving Koshi Tappu as the only wildlife reserve.
The Karnali river, home to the Gangetic dolphin, flows along the edge of which national park?
- A) Parsa
- B) Chitwan
- C) Shuklaphanta
- D) Bardiya ✔
Why: The Karnali river along Bardiya National Park is home to the Gangetic dolphin.
Banke National Park was declared in which year?
- A) 2058 BS
- B) 2073 BS
- C) 2067 BS ✔
- D) 2045 BS
Why: Banke National Park was declared in 2067 BS (2010 AD) and links with Bardiya to form a larger tiger habitat.
Which is the smallest national park of Nepal?
- A) Shivapuri Nagarjun
- B) Rara ✔
- C) Khaptad
- D) Shuklaphanta
Why: Rara National Park, about 106 sq km in Mugu and Jumla, is the smallest national park.
Which is the largest national park of Nepal?
- A) Langtang
- B) Makalu Barun
- C) Sagarmatha
- D) Shey Phoksundo ✔
Why: Shey Phoksundo in Dolpa is the largest national park, even after its Mugu portion became Chhayanath.
Chhayanath National Park, the newest national park of Nepal, is located in which district?
- A) Mugu ✔
- B) Dolpa
- C) Humla
- D) Jumla
Why: Chhayanath National Park was created in Mugu in 2082 BS from the Mugu portion of Shey Phoksundo.
The holy lake Gosaikunda and the red panda are linked with which national park?
- A) Rara
- B) Khaptad
- C) Langtang ✔
- D) Makalu Barun
Why: Gosaikunda lies in Langtang National Park (Rasuwa), which is also known for the red panda.
Which national park on the rim of Kathmandu valley protects the source of the Bagmati river?
- A) Langtang
- B) Shivapuri Nagarjun ✔
- C) Chitwan
- D) Parsa
Why: Shivapuri Nagarjun National Park guards the source of the Bagmati and supplies drinking water to the valley.
Khaptad National Park, known for its grassy plateau and Khaptad Baba's ashram, spreads over which group of districts?
- A) Bajhang, Bajura, Doti and Achham ✔
- B) Dolpa and Mugu
- C) Darchula and Baitadi
- D) Kailali and Kanchanpur
Why: Khaptad National Park lies in Bajhang, Bajura, Doti and Achham of the far west.
Koshi Tappu Wildlife Reserve was set up mainly to protect which animal?
- A) Swamp deer
- B) Blackbuck
- C) One-horned rhinoceros
- D) Wild water buffalo (arna) ✔
Why: Koshi Tappu protects the last wild population of the wild water buffalo (arna) in Nepal.
Dhorpatan, the only hunting reserve of Nepal, spreads over which districts?
- A) Dolpa, Jumla and Mugu
- B) Gorkha, Lamjung and Manang
- C) Baglung, Rukum (East) and Myagdi ✔
- D) Rasuwa, Nuwakot and Dhading
Why: Dhorpatan Hunting Reserve lies in Baglung, Rukum (East) and Myagdi, and blue sheep is the main game animal.
Which is the largest protected area of Nepal?
- A) Shey Phoksundo National Park
- B) Annapurna Conservation Area ✔
- C) Dhorpatan Hunting Reserve
- D) Kanchenjunga Conservation Area
Why: Annapurna Conservation Area, about 7,629 sq km, is bigger than any national park or reserve.
Which organisation manages the Annapurna Conservation Area?
- A) Nepal Army
- B) The local district office
- C) Ministry of Tourism
- D) National Trust for Nature Conservation (NTNC) ✔
Why: Annapurna Conservation Area is run by the National Trust for Nature Conservation rather than directly by the government department.
The smallest protected area of Nepal, Krishnasar Conservation Area, is located in which district?
- A) Bardiya ✔
- B) Banke
- C) Kailali
- D) Dang
Why: Krishnasar (Blackbuck) Conservation Area, about 16.95 sq km, is at Khairapur in Bardiya.
Which conservation area lies in Darchula district of the far west?
- A) Gaurishankar
- B) Manaslu
- C) Api Nampa ✔
- D) Kanchenjunga
Why: Api Nampa Conservation Area, declared in 2010 AD, is in Darchula.
Which pair are the natural World Heritage Sites of Nepal?
- A) Langtang and Rara
- B) Sagarmatha and Chitwan ✔
- C) Chitwan and Bardiya
- D) Annapurna and Sagarmatha
Why: Sagarmatha National Park (1979) and Chitwan National Park (1984) are on the UNESCO World Heritage List.
How many Ramsar sites does Nepal have, and which was the first?
- A) 9; Rara Lake
- B) 12; Phewa Lake
- C) 8; Gosaikunda
- D) 10; Koshi Tappu ✔
Why: Nepal has 10 Ramsar sites, and Koshi Tappu was the first, listed in 1987 AD.
Which Ramsar site of Nepal is a man-made reservoir in Kapilvastu district?
- A) Ghodaghodi Lake
- B) Mai Pokhari
- C) Beeshazar Lake
- D) Jagadishpur Reservoir ✔
Why: Jagadishpur Reservoir in Kapilvastu is a man-made wetland that was listed as a Ramsar site in 2003 AD.
Under the National Parks and Wildlife Conservation Act 2029, how many species in total are fully protected?
- A) 39 ✔
- B) 27
- C) 30
- D) 45
Why: The Act protects 27 mammals, 9 birds and 3 reptiles, which add up to 39 species.
For about how many years did the Rana family rule Nepal?
- A) 84 years
- B) 104 years ✔
- C) 124 years
- D) 94 years
Why: Rana rule ran from 1903 BS to 2007 BS, a period of 104 years.
Which event of 1903 BS made Jung Bahadur the prime minister of Nepal?
- A) Alau Parva
- B) Bhandarkhal Parva
- C) Kot Parva ✔
- D) Treaty of Sugauli
Why: After the Kot Parva in 1903 BS, the queen appointed Jung Bahadur prime minister, marking the start of Rana rule.
The murder of which general led the queen to call the courtiers to the Kot in 1903 BS?
- A) Gagan Singh Bhandari ✔
- B) Mathbar Singh Thapa
- C) Fateh Jung Shah
- D) Abhiman Singh Rana
Why: General Gagan Singh Bhandari was murdered, and the queen gathered the courtiers at the Kot, where the massacre took place.
At the Alau Parva of 1904 BS, what happened to King Rajendra?
- A) He was made prime minister
- B) He signed a treaty with the British
- C) He returned as a ruling king with full powers
- D) He was defeated and captured while trying to regain power ✔
Why: Rajendra had been replaced by Surendra; when he tried to return with a force, he was defeated and captured at Alau.
Which countries did Jung Bahadur visit on his European tour of 1850 AD?
- A) Germany and Italy
- B) Russia and France
- C) Britain and France ✔
- D) Britain and Spain
Why: Jung Bahadur visited Britain, where he met Queen Victoria, and France.
The Muluki Ain, Nepal's first written legal code, was issued in which year?
- A) 1910 BS ✔
- B) 1903 BS
- C) 1913 BS
- D) 1933 BS
Why: Jung Bahadur issued the Muluki Ain in 1910 BS (1854 AD) after his visit to Europe.
Which statement about the Muluki Ain is correct?
- A) It gave equal punishment to all citizens
- B) It was based on the caste system and punished castes differently ✔
- C) It was the first constitution of Nepal
- D) It abolished slavery
Why: The Muluki Ain gave one code for the whole country, but it followed the caste system and set different punishments for different castes.
The districts Banke, Bardiya, Kailali and Kanchanpur, returned to Nepal in 1860 AD, are together called what?
- A) Madhesh Pradesh
- B) Purano Muluk
- C) Char Kosh Jhadi
- D) Naya Muluk ✔
Why: The British returned this western Tarai, called Naya Muluk, as a reward for Nepal's help during the 1857 Indian uprising.
Under the sanad of 1913 BS, what title and position did Jung Bahadur receive?
- A) Shree 3 and Maharaja of Kaski and Lamjung ✔
- B) Shree 5 and King of Nepal
- C) Shree 3 and Maharaja of Gorkha and Palpa
- D) Shree 2 and Commander-in-Chief only
Why: King Surendra's sanad of 1913 BS made Jung Bahadur Shree 3 Maharaja of Kaski and Lamjung, while the king stayed Shree 5.
Under the Rana roll of succession set in 1913 BS, who was next in line for prime minister after Jung Bahadur?
- A) His eldest son
- B) The person chosen by the king
- C) His brothers, in order of age ✔
- D) The senior army general of the day
Why: The roll of succession passed the post first to Jung's brothers by seniority, and only then to the next generation.
Which Rana prime minister removed the C-class Ranas from the roll of succession in 1990 BS?
- A) Chandra Shumsher
- B) Juddha Shumsher ✔
- C) Bir Shumsher
- D) Mohan Shumsher
Why: Chandra had created the A, B and C classes; Juddha Shumsher expelled the C-class Ranas from the roll in 1990 BS.
Bir Shumsher came to power in 1942 BS after the killing of which prime minister?
- A) Jung Bahadur
- B) Bam Bahadur
- C) Dev Shumsher
- D) Ranoddip Singh ✔
Why: The Shumsher brothers killed Ranoddip Singh in 1942 BS, and Bir Shumsher became prime minister.
Bir Hospital, the oldest hospital of Nepal, was set up by Bir Shumsher in which year?
- A) 1946 BS ✔
- B) 1958 BS
- C) 1975 BS
- D) 1910 BS
Why: Bir Shumsher founded Bir Hospital in 1946 BS (1889 AD).
Gorkhapatra, Nepal's first newspaper, was started in 1958 BS by which Rana prime minister?
- A) Chandra Shumsher
- B) Bir Shumsher
- C) Dev Shumsher ✔
- D) Bhim Shumsher
Why: Dev Shumsher, the most liberal Rana, began Gorkhapatra in 1958 BS before Chandra removed him from power.
In which year did Chandra Shumsher abolish the practice of sati?
- A) 1968 BS
- B) 1975 BS
- C) 1981 BS
- D) 1977 BS ✔
Why: Sati was abolished in 1977 BS (1920 AD); slavery was ended later, with the announcement in 1981 BS.
Tri-Chandra College, the first college of Nepal, was founded in which year?
- A) 1946 BS
- B) 1975 BS ✔
- C) 1994 BS
- D) 1958 BS
Why: Chandra Shumsher founded Tri-Chandra College in 1975 BS (1918 AD).
What was the main importance of the Nepal-Britain Treaty of 1923 AD?
- A) Britain formally recognised Nepal as an independent country ✔
- B) Nepal gave up the Naya Muluk to Britain
- C) Britain agreed to build Singha Durbar
- D) It ended the war between Nepal and Tibet
Why: The 1923 treaty, signed under Chandra Shumsher, gave formal British recognition of Nepal's independence.
Nepal Bank Limited, the first bank of Nepal, was opened under which prime minister?
- A) Padma Shumsher
- B) Chandra Shumsher
- C) Mohan Shumsher
- D) Juddha Shumsher ✔
Why: Nepal Bank Limited opened in 1994 BS (1937 AD) during the rule of Juddha Shumsher.
The Government of Nepal Act 2004 BS, the first written constitution of Nepal, was issued by whom?
- A) Mohan Shumsher
- B) Padma Shumsher ✔
- C) King Tribhuvan
- D) Juddha Shumsher
Why: Padma Shumsher issued the Government of Nepal Act in 2004 BS (1948 AD), though it was never really put into practice.
Who led the Nepal Praja Parishad, regarded as the first political party of Nepal, founded in 1993 BS?
- A) B.P. Koirala
- B) Pushpa Lal Shrestha
- C) Tanka Prasad Acharya ✔
- D) Matrika Prasad Koirala
Why: Praja Parishad was founded in 1993 BS under the leadership of Tanka Prasad Acharya.
Shukraraj Shastri was hanged in Magh 1997 BS at which place?
- A) Pachali Bhairav, Teku ✔
- B) Sifal
- C) Shobha Bhagwati
- D) Tundikhel
Why: Shukraraj Shastri was hanged at Pachali Bhairav near Teku; Dharma Bhakta Mathema was hanged at Sifal.
Which two martyrs were shot at Shobha Bhagwati in 1997 BS?
- A) Shukraraj Shastri and Dharma Bhakta Mathema
- B) Tanka Prasad Acharya and Ramhari Sharma
- C) Dharma Bhakta Mathema and Dashrath Chand
- D) Gangalal Shrestha and Dashrath Chand ✔
Why: Gangalal Shrestha and Dashrath Chand were shot at Shobha Bhagwati.
Nepali Congress was formed in 2006 BS by the merger of which two parties?
- A) Praja Parishad and Communist Party of Nepal
- B) Nepali Rashtriya Congress and Nepal Prajatantrik Congress ✔
- C) Nepali Rashtriya Congress and Praja Parishad
- D) Nepal Prajatantrik Congress and Gorkha Parishad
Why: The Nepali Rashtriya Congress and Nepal Prajatantrik Congress merged in Kolkata in 2006 BS to form the Nepali Congress.
On 21 Kartik 2007 BS, where did King Tribhuvan take refuge?
- A) Narayanhiti Palace
- B) Gorkha Durbar
- C) The Indian Embassy in Kathmandu ✔
- D) The British Residency in Lucknow
Why: King Tribhuvan entered the Indian Embassy in Kathmandu and later flew to New Delhi.
Who was the last Rana prime minister of Nepal?
- A) Mohan Shumsher ✔
- B) Padma Shumsher
- C) Juddha Shumsher
- D) Matrika Prasad Koirala
Why: Mohan Shumsher stayed prime minister until he resigned in Kartik 2008 BS; Matrika Prasad Koirala then became the first non-Rana prime minister.
Which article of the Constitution of Nepal 2072 provides for a Federal Parliament made up of two Houses?
- A) Article 74
- B) Article 83 ✔
- C) Article 101
- D) Article 110
Why: Article 83 creates the Federal Parliament with the House of Representatives and the National Assembly.
What is the combined total membership of the two Houses of the Federal Parliament?
- A) 334 ✔
- B) 275
- C) 330
- D) 360
Why: The House of Representatives has 275 members and the National Assembly has 59, giving 334.
How many members of the House of Representatives are elected by the first past the post system?
- A) 110
- B) 125
- C) 240
- D) 165 ✔
Why: Article 84 provides 165 FPTP members and 110 proportional representation members.
How many members of the House of Representatives come through the proportional representation system?
- A) 165
- B) 56
- C) 110 ✔
- D) 59
Why: Of the 275 seats, 110 are filled through proportional representation.
A citizen wants to contest the same House of Representatives election from two constituencies at once. What does Article 84 say?
- A) A person cannot be a candidate from more than one constituency ✔
- B) It is allowed if the party agrees
- C) It is allowed only for party leaders
- D) It is allowed if both constituencies are in the same province
Why: Article 84 bars a person from being a candidate in more than one constituency at the same time.
Under Article 84, a vacant House of Representatives seat is filled by the same method used to elect that member when how much of the House's term remains?
- A) Any amount of time
- B) More than six months ✔
- C) More than two years
- D) Less than six months
Why: A vacancy is filled by the original election method only when more than six months of the term remain.
What is the normal term of the House of Representatives under Article 85?
- A) Four years
- B) Six years
- C) Five years, unless dissolved earlier ✔
- D) It is a permanent House
Why: Article 85 fixes a five-year term, but the House can be dissolved earlier under the Constitution.
During a state of emergency, by how much can the term of the House of Representatives be extended at most?
- A) Six months
- B) Two years
- C) Until the emergency ends, with no limit
- D) One year ✔
Why: Under Article 85, a federal Act may extend the term by not more than one year during an emergency.
Which statement about the National Assembly is correct?
- A) It is dissolved together with the House of Representatives
- B) It is a permanent House ✔
- C) It has a fixed term of five years
- D) It has 275 members
Why: Article 86 makes the National Assembly a permanent House that is never dissolved as a whole.
How many National Assembly members are elected from each province?
- A) Eight ✔
- B) Seven
- C) Nine
- D) Three
Why: Eight members are elected from each of the seven provinces, giving 56 elected members.
Among the eight National Assembly members from each province, which minimum mix must be included?
- A) Two women and two Dalits
- B) Four women only
- C) At least three women, one Dalit and one person with disability or minority ✔
- D) One Madhesi and one Tharu
Why: Article 86 requires at least three women, one Dalit and one person with disability or minority from each province.
Who forms the electoral college that elects National Assembly members from a province?
- A) Members of the House of Representatives only
- B) All registered voters of the province
- C) Chief Ministers of all provinces
- D) Provincial Assembly members, chairpersons and vice-chairpersons of rural municipalities, and mayors and deputy mayors of municipalities ✔
Why: Article 86 sets up this electoral college, with different weight given to the votes of its members.
How are the three non-elected members of the National Assembly chosen?
- A) Nominated by the President on the recommendation of the Government of Nepal ✔
- B) Nominated by the Speaker
- C) Chosen by the Supreme Court
- D) Chosen by the Election Commission
Why: The President nominates three members, including at least one woman, on the Government's recommendation.
How does the six-year term of National Assembly members work?
- A) All members retire together every six years
- B) One-third of the members retire every two years ✔
- C) Half of the members retire every three years
- D) Members serve for life
Why: Terms are staggered so that one-third retire every two years, keeping the House permanent.
How was the first retirement cycle of the National Assembly arranged after the Constitution came into force?
- A) By the age of members
- B) By alphabetical order
- C) By a vote of the House of Representatives
- D) By drawing lots ✔
Why: Lots decided who would retire after two, four and six years so that the staggered cycle could start.
What is the minimum age to become a member of the National Assembly?
- A) 21 years
- B) 25 years
- C) 35 years ✔
- D) 45 years
Why: Article 87 requires 35 years for the National Assembly, compared with 25 years for the House of Representatives.
Which of the following disqualifies a person from becoming a member of the Federal Parliament under Article 87?
- A) Holding an office of profit ✔
- B) Being a woman
- C) Being under 40 years of age
- D) Not owning land
Why: A member must not hold an office of profit, must be a citizen, meet the age rule and not be convicted of a crime of moral turpitude.
Which rule applies to the election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker under Article 91?
- A) Both must be from the largest party
- B) Both must be men
- C) One must be from the National Assembly
- D) One must be a woman, and the two must represent different parties ✔
Why: Article 91 requires one woman among the two and requires them to come from different parties.
What does Article 92 require for the Chairperson and Vice-Chairperson of the National Assembly?
- A) They must be from different parties and both women
- B) They must be nominated by the President
- C) One of the two must be a woman ✔
- D) Both must be from the same province
Why: Article 92 requires one woman among the two; unlike the Speaker rule, it does not require different parties.
After an election to the House of Representatives, within how many days of the final results must the first session be summoned?
- A) Thirty days ✔
- B) Fifteen days
- C) Sixty days
- D) Six months
Why: Article 93 requires the President to summon the session within thirty days of the final election results.
What is the maximum gap allowed between two sessions of the Federal Parliament?
- A) Three months
- B) One year
- C) Six months ✔
- D) Two months
Why: Article 93 says the interval between two sessions must not be more than six months.
What is the quorum for a decision in either House under Article 94?
- A) One-half of total members
- B) Two-thirds of total members
- C) One-fourth of total members ✔
- D) One-tenth of total members
Why: No question or motion can be put for decision unless one-fourth of the total members are present.
In which House can a Money Bill be introduced?
- A) In either House
- B) Only in the House of Representatives ✔
- C) Only in the National Assembly
- D) Only in a joint sitting
Why: Article 110 allows a Money Bill only in the House of Representatives, and only as a government bill.
Within how many days must the National Assembly return a Money Bill to the House of Representatives?
- A) Two months
- B) Seven days
- C) Thirty days
- D) Fifteen days ✔
Why: Article 111 gives the National Assembly 15 days for a Money Bill and two months for other bills.
What must be the minimum share of women among the total members elected from each political party in the Federal Parliament?
- A) One-fourth
- B) One-third ✔
- C) One-half
- D) One-fifth
Why: The Constitution requires at least one-third of each party's elected members in the Federal Parliament to be women.
Constitutional bodies are placed in which Parts of the Constitution of Nepal 2072?
- A) Part 21 to Part 27 ✔
- B) Part 8 to Part 9
- C) Part 11 to Part 15
- D) Part 30 to Part 35
Why: Parts 21 to 27, covering Articles 238 to 265, deal with the constitutional bodies.
How many constitutional bodies are provided for in Parts 21 to 27 taken together?
- A) Seven
- B) Six
- C) Thirteen ✔
- D) Ten
Why: Parts 21 to 26 have six bodies and Part 27 has seven commissions, making thirteen.
Which body is covered by Part 22 of the Constitution?
- A) Election Commission
- B) Auditor General ✔
- C) Public Service Commission
- D) National Human Rights Commission
Why: Part 22 (Articles 240 and 241) deals with the Auditor General.
Who appoints the chiefs and members of constitutional bodies?
- A) The Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet
- B) The Chief Justice
- C) The Speaker of the House of Representatives
- D) The President on the recommendation of the Constitutional Council ✔
Why: Appointments are made by the President on the recommendation of the Constitutional Council.
Who chairs the Constitutional Council under Article 284?
- A) The Prime Minister ✔
- B) The President
- C) The Chief Justice
- D) The Speaker
Why: The Prime Minister is the Chairperson of the six-member Constitutional Council.
Which of these is NOT a member of the Constitutional Council?
- A) Chief Justice
- B) Chief Election Commissioner ✔
- C) Leader of the main opposition party in the House of Representatives
- D) Deputy Speaker of the House of Representatives
Why: The Council has the Prime Minister, Chief Justice, Speaker, National Assembly Chairperson, Leader of the Opposition and Deputy Speaker.
What is the usual term of office of the chief and members of a constitutional body?
- A) Four years
- B) Five years
- C) Until the age of 70
- D) Six years ✔
Why: The Constitution fixes a six-year term from the date of appointment, with no reappointment to the same office.
In most constitutional bodies, at what age does the office of a chief or member fall vacant?
- A) 60 years
- B) 58 years
- C) 65 years ✔
- D) 70 years
Why: For most bodies the office becomes vacant on reaching 65 years of age; the usual minimum age for appointment is 45.
Under which article does each constitutional body send its annual report to the President?
- A) Article 294 ✔
- B) Article 284
- C) Article 101
- D) Article 265
Why: Article 294 requires an annual report to the President, who has it laid before Parliament through the Prime Minister.
Before appointment, chiefs and members of constitutional bodies go through a hearing in the Federal Parliament under which article?
- A) Article 238
- B) Article 274
- C) Article 250
- D) Article 292 ✔
Why: Article 292 provides for parliamentary hearings for such appointments.
What is the composition of the Commission for the Investigation of Abuse of Authority under Article 238?
- A) A single Commissioner
- B) A Chief Commissioner and four other Commissioners ✔
- C) A Chairperson and up to two members
- D) Seven Commissioners chosen by Parliament
Why: The CIAA has a Chief Commissioner and four other Commissioners, five in all.
What is the main function of the CIAA under Article 239?
- A) Conducting elections
- B) Auditing government accounts
- C) Investigating abuse of authority through corruption by public office holders ✔
- D) Recommending revenue sharing
Why: The CIAA investigates corruption by persons in public office and can file cases in the competent court.
The Auditor General checks government accounts for regularity, economy, efficiency, effectiveness and what else?
- A) Popularity
- B) Propriety ✔
- C) Profitability
- D) Publicity
Why: Article 241 lists regularity, economy, efficiency, effectiveness and propriety.
The Auditor General must be consulted on appointing auditors for which bodies?
- A) Corporate bodies in which the government owns more than half of the shares ✔
- B) All private companies
- C) Political parties only
- D) Foreign embassies
Why: Article 241 requires consultation with the Auditor General for auditors of corporate bodies with majority government ownership.
Which article provides for a Provincial Public Service Commission in each province?
- A) Article 242
- B) Article 243
- C) Article 244 ✔
- D) Article 247
Why: Article 244 provides for Provincial Public Service Commissions, formed under provincial law.
Which elections does the Election Commission conduct under Article 246?
- A) Only elections to the House of Representatives
- B) Only local level elections
- C) Elections inside political parties
- D) Elections of the President, Vice-President, Federal Parliament, Provincial Assemblies and local levels ✔
Why: Article 246 covers all these elections, along with the voters' roll and referendums.
Besides elections, which of these is a function of the Election Commission?
- A) Holding referendums on matters of national importance ✔
- B) Auditing provincial governments
- C) Recruiting civil servants
- D) Investigating corruption
Why: Article 246 also gives the Election Commission the duty of holding referendums.
Under Article 247, who must give the Election Commission the staff and help it needs?
- A) Foreign donors
- B) The Government of Nepal, provincial governments and local levels ✔
- C) Political parties
- D) The Supreme Court only
Why: Article 247 requires all levels of government to provide the necessary staff and assistance.
Who can be the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission?
- A) Any serving minister
- B) A sitting member of Parliament
- C) The Chief of Army Staff
- D) A retired Chief Justice or Supreme Court Judge with an outstanding human rights contribution, or a well-known person with twenty years in human rights or related work ✔
Why: Article 248 sets these qualifications for the NHRC Chairperson.
Which power does the National Human Rights Commission have under Article 249?
- A) Passing laws on human rights
- B) Appointing judges
- C) Ordering compensation to victims of human rights violations, as provided by law ✔
- D) Dissolving the House of Representatives
Why: The NHRC can order compensation, use court-like powers in investigations and publish names of those who ignore its recommendations.
How many members can the National Natural Resources and Fiscal Commission have at most?
- A) Seven
- B) Three
- C) Nine
- D) Five, including the Chairperson ✔
Why: Article 250 limits the NNRFC to a maximum of five members including the Chairperson.
Recommending equalisation grants and conditional grants is a function of which body?
- A) National Natural Resources and Fiscal Commission ✔
- B) Auditor General
- C) Public Service Commission
- D) National Inclusion Commission
Why: Article 251 gives the NNRFC the task of recommending grants and the basis of revenue sharing.
Which of these commissions is NOT in Part 27 of the Constitution?
- A) Tharu Commission
- B) Madhesi Commission
- C) Election Commission ✔
- D) Muslim Commission
Why: The Election Commission is in Part 24; Part 27 has the Women, Dalit, Inclusion, Adibasi Janajati, Madhesi, Tharu and Muslim Commissions.
Which article provides for the National Dalit Commission?
- A) Article 252
- B) Article 255 ✔
- C) Article 261
- D) Article 264
Why: Article 255 creates the National Dalit Commission; Article 252 is the National Women Commission.
According to Article 265, when must the Federal Parliament review the commissions formed under Part 27?
- A) Every year
- B) After five years
- C) Only when the President asks
- D) After ten years from the start of the Constitution ✔
Why: Article 265 requires a review of the Part 27 commissions after ten years.
UN Day is celebrated every year on:
- A) 26 June
- B) 24 October ✔
- C) 14 December
- D) 10 December
Why: The UN Charter came into force on 24 October 1945, celebrated as UN Day.
How many member states does the United Nations have?
- A) 191
- B) 192
- C) 193 ✔
- D) 195
Why: The UN has 193 members; South Sudan joined last, in 2011.
How many members does the UN Security Council have?
- A) 5
- B) 10
- C) 15 ✔
- D) 54
Why: The Security Council has 5 permanent and 10 non-permanent members.
Which principal organ of the UN is located at The Hague?
- A) International Court of Justice ✔
- B) Trusteeship Council
- C) ECOSOC
- D) Secretariat
Why: The ICJ sits at The Hague in the Netherlands.
Which principal organ of the UN suspended its work in 1994?
- A) ECOSOC
- B) General Assembly
- C) Secretariat
- D) Trusteeship Council ✔
Why: The Trusteeship Council suspended operations after Palau became independent in 1994.
Where is the headquarters of UNESCO?
- A) Geneva
- B) Rome
- C) Paris ✔
- D) Vienna
Why: UNESCO is based in Paris.
The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) has its headquarters in:
- A) Rome ✔
- B) Geneva
- C) New York
- D) Bern
Why: FAO and IFAD are both based in Rome.
The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) is headquartered in:
- A) London
- B) Geneva
- C) Madrid
- D) Montreal ✔
Why: ICAO is based in Montreal, Canada.
Which UN specialised agency was set up in 1919, before the UN itself?
- A) ILO ✔
- B) WHO
- C) UNESCO
- D) FAO
Why: The ILO was founded in 1919 under the League of Nations era.
Nepal became a member of the United Nations on:
- A) 14 December 1955 ✔
- B) 24 October 1945
- C) 8 December 1985
- D) 23 April 2004
Why: Nepal joined the UN on 14 December 1955.
Since which year has Nepal taken part in UN peacekeeping?
- A) 1955
- B) 1969
- C) 1974
- D) 1958 ✔
Why: Nepal first sent military observers to the UN mission in Lebanon in 1958.
In which periods was Nepal a non-permanent member of the UN Security Council?
- A) 1959-1960 and 1979-1980
- B) 1969-1970 and 1988-1989 ✔
- C) 1975-1976 and 1995-1996
- D) 2001-2002 and 2011-2012
Why: Nepal served on the Security Council in 1969-1970 and 1988-1989.
SAARC was established on 8 December 1985 in:
- A) Kathmandu
- B) New Delhi
- C) Dhaka ✔
- D) Colombo
Why: SAARC was founded at the Dhaka summit; its secretariat is in Kathmandu.
Which country became the eighth member of SAARC in 2007?
- A) Myanmar
- B) Afghanistan ✔
- C) Iran
- D) China
Why: Afghanistan joined SAARC in 2007.
Which SAARC summit, held in Kathmandu in 2014, is the latest summit so far?
- A) 11th
- B) 16th
- C) 18th ✔
- D) 19th
Why: The 18th summit was held in Kathmandu in November 2014; the 19th was cancelled.
BIMSTEC was formed on 6 June 1997 in:
- A) Dhaka
- B) Bangkok ✔
- C) Kathmandu
- D) Colombo
Why: It was formed in Bangkok as BIST-EC.
Nepal became a full member of BIMSTEC in:
- A) 1997
- B) 2000
- C) 2004 ✔
- D) 2014
Why: Nepal and Bhutan became full members in 2004.
Where is the permanent secretariat of BIMSTEC?
- A) Kathmandu
- B) Bangkok
- C) New Delhi
- D) Dhaka ✔
Why: The BIMSTEC secretariat opened in Dhaka in 2014.
Nepal became which member of the World Trade Organization on 23 April 2004?
- A) 147th ✔
- B) 145th
- C) 150th
- D) 164th
Why: Nepal became the 147th WTO member.
The headquarters of the Asian Development Bank is in:
- A) Tokyo
- B) Manila ✔
- C) Bangkok
- D) Singapore
Why: ADB, founded in 1966, is based in Manila; Nepal is a founding member.
According to the chronicles, who was the first king of the Gopal dynasty?
- A) Yalambar
- B) Bhuktaman ✔
- C) Manadev
- D) Ari Malla
Why: Bhuktaman is named as the first Gopal king.
Which dynasty ruled the valley after the Gopals?
- A) Kirat
- B) Licchavi
- C) Mahishpal (Abhir) ✔
- D) Malla
Why: The Mahishpals, or Abhirs, followed the Gopals.
Who was the first Kirat king?
- A) Jitedasti
- B) Humati
- C) Gasti
- D) Yalambar ✔
Why: Yalambar was the first Kirat king.
During the reign of which Kirat king is Gautam Buddha said to have visited the valley?
- A) Yalambar
- B) Bhuktaman
- C) Amshuverma
- D) Jitedasti ✔
Why: Tradition says Buddha came during the reign of Jitedasti.
Which is the main chronicle for early Nepalese history?
- A) Gopalraj Vamshavali ✔
- B) Divya Upadesh
- C) Muluki Ain
- D) Bhanubhakta Ramayan
Why: The Gopalraj Vamshavali is the most important early chronicle.
The famous pillar inscription of Manadev I, dated 464 AD, is found at:
- A) Pashupatinath
- B) Changu Narayan ✔
- C) Lumbini
- D) Hanuman Dhoka
Why: The Changu Narayan pillar inscription of Manadev I dates from 464 AD and is the oldest dated Licchavi inscription.
The Changu Narayan inscription belongs to which king?
- A) Amshuverma
- B) Narendradev
- C) Manadev I ✔
- D) Jayadev II
Why: It was set up by the Licchavi king Manadev I.
The Licchavi period is called the first historical period of Nepal mainly because of its:
- A) Dated inscriptions ✔
- B) Paper documents
- C) Coins only
- D) Foreign wars
Why: Many dated Sanskrit inscriptions survive from the Licchavi period.
Kailashkut Bhawan was built by:
- A) Manadev I
- B) Pratap Malla
- C) Jayasthiti Malla
- D) Amshuverma ✔
Why: Amshuverma built the Kailashkut Bhawan palace.
Bhrikuti, linked with Amshuverma, married which Tibetan king?
- A) Songtsen Gampo ✔
- B) Trisong Detsen
- C) Kublai Khan
- D) Dalai Lama
Why: Bhrikuti married Songtsen Gampo and helped spread Buddhism in Tibet.
Nepal Sambat started in which year AD?
- A) 464
- B) 1200
- C) 1482
- D) 879 ✔
Why: Nepal Sambat began in 879 AD.
Nepal Sambat is associated with which merchant who paid off the debts of the people?
- A) Shankhadhar Sakhwa ✔
- B) Araniko
- C) Bhimsen Thapa
- D) Kalu Pande
Why: Shankhadhar Sakhwa is honoured as the founder of Nepal Sambat.
Who was the first Malla king?
- A) Yaksha Malla
- B) Jayasthiti Malla
- C) Ari Malla ✔
- D) Ratna Malla
Why: Ari Malla (Arideva) began Malla rule around 1200 AD.
Which Malla king divided society into castes according to occupation?
- A) Jayasthiti Malla ✔
- B) Pratap Malla
- C) Bhupatindra Malla
- D) Ranajit Malla
Why: Jayasthiti Malla (1382-1395) is known for caste-based social reforms.
After the death of which king was the Kathmandu Valley divided among his sons?
- A) Jayasthiti Malla
- B) Yaksha Malla ✔
- C) Pratap Malla
- D) Siddhi Narasingh Malla
Why: After Yaksha Malla died in 1482, the valley was divided.
Who founded the separate kingdom of Kantipur after the division of the valley?
- A) Raya Malla
- B) Ran Malla
- C) Ratna Malla ✔
- D) Jaya Prakash Malla
Why: Ratna Malla set up the kingdom of Kantipur; Raya Malla had Bhaktapur.
The stone inscription in 15 languages at Hanuman Dhoka was set up by:
- A) Pratap Malla ✔
- B) Siddhi Narasingh Malla
- C) Bhupatindra Malla
- D) Amshuverma
Why: Pratap Malla, known as Kavindra, set it up in 1654.
The Krishna Mandir of Patan was built by:
- A) Pratap Malla
- B) Siddhi Narasingh Malla ✔
- C) Tej Narasingh Malla
- D) Yaksha Malla
Why: Siddhi Narasingh Malla built the Krishna Mandir in 1637.
The Nyatapola temple of Bhaktapur was built by:
- A) Ranajit Malla
- B) Bhupatindra Malla ✔
- C) Raya Malla
- D) Jayasthiti Malla
Why: Bhupatindra Malla built Nyatapola in 1702.
Who was the last Malla king of Kantipur?
- A) Tej Narasingh Malla
- B) Ranajit Malla
- C) Jaya Prakash Malla ✔
- D) Pratap Malla
Why: Jaya Prakash Malla lost Kantipur to Prithvi Narayan Shah in 1768.
Which Article of the Constitution of Nepal provides for three levels of state structure?
- A) Article 56 ✔
- B) Article 50
- C) Article 74
- D) Article 217
Why: Article 56 sets out the federal, provincial and local levels.
How many local levels are there in Nepal?
- A) 744
- B) 753 ✔
- C) 761
- D) 775
Why: There are 753 local levels.
How many metropolitan cities are there in Nepal?
- A) 4
- B) 11
- C) 13
- D) 6 ✔
Why: There are 6 metropolitan cities.
How many sub-metropolitan cities are there in Nepal?
- A) 11 ✔
- B) 6
- C) 9
- D) 13
Why: There are 11 sub-metropolitan cities.
How many rural municipalities (gaunpalika) are there in Nepal?
- A) 276
- B) 293
- C) 481
- D) 460 ✔
Why: There are 460 rural municipalities and 276 municipalities.
How many wards are there in all local levels together?
- A) 6,743 ✔
- B) 6,553
- C) 7,053
- D) 3,915
Why: The 753 local levels have 6,743 wards.
Which schedule of the Constitution lists the exclusive powers of the local level?
- A) Schedule 5
- B) Schedule 6
- C) Schedule 7
- D) Schedule 8 ✔
Why: Schedule 8 lists local powers.
Which schedule lists the concurrent powers of the federation, province and local level?
- A) Schedule 6
- B) Schedule 7
- C) Schedule 8
- D) Schedule 9 ✔
Why: Schedule 9 is concurrent among all three levels.
Schedule 7 of the Constitution contains:
- A) Federal powers
- B) Provincial powers
- C) Concurrent powers of the federation and provinces ✔
- D) Local powers
Why: Schedule 7 is the federal-provincial concurrent list.
Residual powers not listed in any schedule belong to:
- A) The federation ✔
- B) The local level
- C) The province
- D) The District Coordination Committee
Why: Article 58 gives residual powers to the federation.
Who chairs the judicial committee of a municipality?
- A) Mayor
- B) Deputy Mayor ✔
- C) Chief Administrative Officer
- D) Ward chairperson
Why: The Deputy Mayor (or Vice-Chairperson in a rural municipality) chairs it.
How many members does a local judicial committee have?
- A) Two
- B) Three ✔
- C) Five
- D) Seven
Why: Article 217 provides for a three-member judicial committee.
A ward committee consists of the ward chairperson and how many ward members?
- A) Two
- B) Three
- C) Four ✔
- D) Five
Why: It has the ward chairperson and four ward members.
How many women members are elected by the assembly to a Municipal Executive?
- A) Three
- B) Four
- C) Five ✔
- D) Six
Why: A Municipal Executive has 5 women members; a Village Executive has 4.
The Local Government Operation Act was enacted in:
- A) 2074 BS ✔
- B) 2072 BS
- C) 2073 BS
- D) 2075 BS
Why: The Local Government Operation Act is of 2074 (2017).
Which constitutional body recommends the sharing of revenue and grants among the three levels?
- A) Election Commission
- B) National Natural Resources and Fiscal Commission ✔
- C) Public Service Commission
- D) National Planning Commission
Why: Articles 250 and 251 provide for this commission.
Which of these is NOT one of the four types of grants under the Intergovernmental Fiscal Arrangement Act?
- A) Fiscal equalisation grant
- B) Conditional grant
- C) Performance bonus grant ✔
- D) Special grant
Why: The four grants are fiscal equalisation, conditional, complementary and special.
VAT collected on domestic goods is shared between the federal, provincial and local levels in the ratio:
- A) 50:25:25
- B) 60:20:20
- C) 80:10:10
- D) 70:15:15 ✔
Why: VAT and domestic excise are shared 70, 15 and 15 percent.
The Inter-Provincial Council is chaired by:
- A) The President
- B) The Prime Minister ✔
- C) The Speaker
- D) The Chief Justice
Why: Article 234 provides for the council chaired by the Prime Minister.
The District Coordination Committee is provided for in which Article?
- A) Article 214
- B) Article 217
- C) Article 220 ✔
- D) Article 234
Why: Article 220 provides for the District Assembly and District Coordination Committee.
What is the name of our galaxy?
- A) Milky Way ✔
- B) Andromeda
- C) Orion
- D) Triangulum
Why: The solar system is part of the Milky Way, a spiral galaxy.
A light-year is a unit of:
- A) Time
- B) Speed
- C) Brightness
- D) Distance ✔
Why: A light-year is the distance light travels in one year, about 9.46 trillion km.
The Sun produces its energy mainly by:
- A) Burning coal
- B) Nuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium ✔
- C) Nuclear fission
- D) Chemical reactions of oxygen
Why: In the Sun's core, hydrogen nuclei fuse to form helium and release energy.
About how long does sunlight take to reach the Earth?
- A) 8 seconds
- B) 1 hour
- C) 8 minutes 20 seconds ✔
- D) 1 day
Why: At about 3 lakh km per second, light covers the 150 million km in about 8 minutes 20 seconds.
Which is the smallest planet of the solar system?
- A) Mars
- B) Pluto
- C) Venus
- D) Mercury ✔
Why: Mercury is the smallest planet and the closest to the Sun. Pluto is now a dwarf planet.
Which planet is the hottest, even though it is not the closest to the Sun?
- A) Venus ✔
- B) Mars
- C) Mercury
- D) Jupiter
Why: Venus is the hottest because its thick carbon dioxide atmosphere traps heat.
Which planet is called the red planet?
- A) Jupiter
- B) Saturn
- C) Mars ✔
- D) Venus
Why: Iron oxide (rust) in its soil makes Mars look red.
The largest planet of the solar system is:
- A) Saturn
- B) Jupiter ✔
- C) Neptune
- D) Uranus
Why: Jupiter is the largest planet and has the Great Red Spot.
In which year was Pluto reclassified as a dwarf planet?
- A) 1996
- B) 2006 ✔
- C) 2001
- D) 2012
Why: The International Astronomical Union reclassified Pluto in 2006.
The asteroid belt lies between the orbits of:
- A) Earth and Mars
- B) Venus and Earth
- C) Jupiter and Saturn
- D) Mars and Jupiter ✔
Why: Most asteroids are found between Mars and Jupiter.
The tilt of the Earth's axis together with its revolution causes:
- A) Seasons ✔
- B) Day and night
- C) Tides
- D) Eclipses
Why: Seasons are caused by the tilted axis (about 23.5 degrees) as the Earth goes round the Sun. Rotation causes day and night.
The gravity on the Moon is about how much of the Earth's gravity?
- A) One half
- B) One quarter
- C) One sixth ✔
- D) Same
Why: The Moon's gravity is about one sixth of the Earth's.
Why do we always see the same face of the Moon?
- A) The Moon does not rotate
- B) The Earth hides the other side
- C) The Moon's rotation and revolution take the same time ✔
- D) The other side has no light
Why: The Moon spins once in the same time it takes to go round the Earth, about 27.3 days.
A solar eclipse can happen only on:
- A) A new moon day ✔
- B) A full moon day
- C) Any day of the month
- D) The first quarter day
Why: In a solar eclipse the Moon is between the Sun and Earth, which happens at new moon (Aunsi).
In a lunar eclipse, which body is in the middle?
- A) The Sun
- B) The Moon
- C) Venus
- D) The Earth ✔
Why: In a lunar eclipse the Earth comes between the Sun and the Moon, and its shadow falls on the Moon.
A solar eclipse in which a bright ring of the Sun is seen around the Moon is called:
- A) Total eclipse
- B) Annular eclipse ✔
- C) Penumbral eclipse
- D) Partial lunar eclipse
Why: In an annular eclipse the Moon looks too small to cover the Sun fully, leaving a ring of light.
Halley's Comet is seen from the Earth about every:
- A) 12 years
- B) 29 years
- C) 165 years
- D) 76 years ✔
Why: Halley's Comet returns about every 76 years; it was last seen in 1986.
Who was the first human to travel into space?
- A) Neil Armstrong
- B) Buzz Aldrin
- C) Yuri Gagarin ✔
- D) Valentina Tereshkova
Why: Yuri Gagarin of the USSR orbited the Earth on 12 April 1961.
The first artificial satellite, launched in 1957, was:
- A) Sputnik 1 ✔
- B) Apollo 11
- C) Explorer 1
- D) Vostok 1
Why: The USSR launched Sputnik 1 on 4 October 1957.
NepaliSat-1, Nepal's first satellite, was launched in:
- A) 2017
- B) 2019 ✔
- C) 2021
- D) 2023
Why: NepaliSat-1 was launched on 17 April 2019 under the BIRDS-3 project, funded by NAST.
The SI unit of electric current is the:
- A) Ampere ✔
- B) Ohm
- C) Volt
- D) Coulomb
Why: Current is measured in amperes; 1 A is 1 coulomb per second.
An ammeter is connected in a circuit:
- A) In parallel
- B) It is not connected
- C) Across the battery only
- D) In series ✔
Why: An ammeter measures the current through a component, so it is connected in series.
Potential difference is measured by a:
- A) Ammeter
- B) Voltmeter ✔
- C) Galvanometer
- D) Wattmeter
Why: A voltmeter, connected in parallel, measures potential difference in volts.
Ohm's law gives the relation:
- A) P = V × I
- B) Q = I × t
- C) V = I × R ✔
- D) E = P × t
Why: Ohm's law states that V = I × R at constant temperature.
A 12 V battery is connected to a 4 Ω resistor. What current flows?
- A) 48 A
- B) 8 A
- C) 0.33 A
- D) 3 A ✔
Why: I = V ÷ R = 12 ÷ 4 = 3 A.
If the length of a wire is increased, its resistance:
- A) Increases ✔
- B) Decreases
- C) Stays the same
- D) Becomes zero
Why: Resistance is directly proportional to the length of the wire.
Which is the best conductor of electricity?
- A) Copper
- B) Aluminium
- C) Silver ✔
- D) Iron
Why: Silver is the best conductor, but copper is used for wires because it is cheaper.
Silicon and germanium are examples of:
- A) Conductors
- B) Semiconductors ✔
- C) Insulators
- D) Superconductors
Why: Silicon and germanium are semiconductors used in chips, diodes and transistors.
The filament of an electric bulb is made of:
- A) Copper
- B) Tungsten ✔
- C) Nichrome
- D) Aluminium
Why: Tungsten has a very high melting point, so it can glow white-hot without melting.
Household appliances are connected:
- A) In series
- B) Only through a transformer
- C) In a single loop
- D) In parallel ✔
Why: Parallel wiring gives each appliance the same voltage and lets each be switched separately.
Two 6 Ω resistors are connected in parallel. What is the total resistance?
- A) 3 Ω ✔
- B) 6 Ω
- C) 12 Ω
- D) 36 Ω
Why: 1/R = 1/6 + 1/6 = 2/6, so R = 3 Ω.
The commercial unit of electrical energy (one unit) is the:
- A) Watt
- B) Kilowatt
- C) Kilowatt-hour ✔
- D) Joule
Why: Electricity bills count energy in kilowatt-hours; 1 kWh is one unit.
How many units of electricity does a 100 W bulb use in 10 hours?
- A) 0.1 unit
- B) 10 units
- C) 1 unit ✔
- D) 100 units
Why: 100 W × 10 h = 1,000 Wh = 1 kWh = 1 unit.
A fuse wire should have:
- A) Low melting point ✔
- B) High melting point
- C) Zero resistance
- D) Very large thickness
Why: A fuse must melt quickly when the current is too high, so it has a low melting point.
The frequency of the household AC supply in Nepal is:
- A) 220 Hz
- B) 60 Hz
- C) 100 Hz
- D) 50 Hz ✔
Why: Nepal's supply is about 230 V at 50 hertz.
A transformer works on:
- A) DC only
- B) AC only ✔
- C) Both AC and DC equally
- D) Neither
Why: A transformer needs a changing magnetic field, which only AC produces.
Which of these is NOT attracted by a magnet?
- A) Iron
- B) Nickel
- C) Cobalt
- D) Copper ✔
Why: Copper is non-magnetic; iron, nickel and cobalt are magnetic materials.
A freely suspended bar magnet always comes to rest in which direction?
- A) East-west
- B) Up-down
- C) North-south ✔
- D) Any direction
Why: Because of the Earth's magnetic field, a freely hanging magnet points north-south.
Who discovered electromagnetic induction in 1831?
- A) Michael Faraday ✔
- B) Ohm
- C) Oersted
- D) Volta
Why: Michael Faraday showed that a changing magnetic field produces a current, the principle of generators.
An electric motor changes:
- A) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
- B) Electrical energy into mechanical energy ✔
- C) Heat into electricity
- D) Light into electricity
Why: A motor turns electrical energy into motion; a generator does the opposite.
According to the National Census 2078, how many caste and ethnic groups are there in Nepal?
- A) 125
- B) 142 ✔
- C) 126
- D) 131
Why: The 2078 census recorded 142 caste and ethnic groups.
How many languages were recorded as mother tongues in the National Census 2078?
- A) 123
- B) 129
- C) 124 ✔
- D) 92
Why: The 2078 census counted 124 languages spoken as mother tongues.
Which is the most spoken mother tongue in Nepal?
- A) Nepali ✔
- B) Maithili
- C) Bhojpuri
- D) Tharu
Why: Nepali is the mother tongue of about 44.86% of the population.
Which is the second most spoken mother tongue in Nepal?
- A) Bhojpuri
- B) Tamang
- C) Tharu
- D) Maithili ✔
Why: Maithili is second, spoken by about 11.05% as a mother tongue.
Which is the largest caste group in Nepal according to the 2078 census?
- A) Hill Brahmin
- B) Magar
- C) Chhetri ✔
- D) Tharu
Why: Chhetri is the largest group at 16.45%.
Which article of the Constitution of Nepal makes Nepali in Devanagari script the official language?
- A) Article 7 ✔
- B) Article 6
- C) Article 9
- D) Article 4
Why: Article 7 deals with the official language; Article 6 deals with languages of the nation.
Which is the second largest religion in Nepal according to the 2078 census?
- A) Islam
- B) Buddhism ✔
- C) Kirat
- D) Christianity
Why: Buddhism is followed by about 8.21% of the population, after Hinduism.
In which festival do people receive tika and jamara from elders?
- A) Tihar
- B) Teej
- C) Holi
- D) Dashain ✔
Why: Dashain is marked by receiving tika and jamara on Vijaya Dashami.
Which festival ends with Bhai Tika?
- A) Dashain
- B) Tihar ✔
- C) Chhath
- D) Maghi
Why: Bhai Tika is the last day of Tihar.
Which festival involves worshipping the Sun god while standing in water at sunset and sunrise?
- A) Chhath ✔
- B) Teej
- C) Maghi
- D) Indra Jatra
Why: Chhath is a festival of the Sun god celebrated mainly in Madhesh and the Terai.
Tamu Lhosar is the new year of which community?
- A) Tamang
- B) Sherpa
- C) Gurung ✔
- D) Magar
Why: Tamu Lhosar is celebrated by the Gurung community on Poush 15.
Maghi is celebrated as the new year by which community?
- A) Newar
- B) Tharu ✔
- C) Rai
- D) Sherpa
Why: Maghi on Magh 1 is the new year of the Tharu community.
Udhauli and Ubhauli are festivals of which communities?
- A) Kirat communities ✔
- B) Newar community
- C) Tharu community
- D) Sherpa community
Why: Udhauli and Ubhauli are celebrated by Kirat communities such as Rai, Limbu, Sunuwar and Yakkha.
In which city is Indra Jatra mainly celebrated?
- A) Bhaktapur
- B) Lalitpur
- C) Pokhara
- D) Kathmandu ✔
Why: Indra Jatra is a major festival of Kathmandu, with the chariot of the living goddess Kumari.
Bisket Jatra is celebrated in:
- A) Kathmandu
- B) Bhaktapur ✔
- C) Lalitpur
- D) Kirtipur
Why: Bisket Jatra is held in Bhaktapur around the Nepali new year.
The Rato Machhindranath chariot festival is held in:
- A) Lalitpur ✔
- B) Bhaktapur
- C) Kathmandu
- D) Dhulikhel
Why: Rato Machhindranath Jatra is a long chariot festival of Lalitpur.
Nepal Sambat is associated with:
- A) Prithvi Narayan Shah
- B) Araniko
- C) Shankhadhar Sakhwa ✔
- D) Bhanubhakta Acharya
Why: Nepal Sambat is linked with Shankhadhar Sakhwa, who is said to have freed people from debt.
Mithila painting is a folk art of which region?
- A) Karnali
- B) Kathmandu Valley
- C) Mustang
- D) Madhesh, around Janakpur ✔
Why: Mithila painting comes from the Madhesh region around Janakpur.
Krishna Mandir in Patan is built in which architectural style?
- A) Pagoda
- B) Stupa
- C) Shikhara ✔
- D) Mughal
Why: Krishna Mandir is a famous stone temple in the Shikhara style.
Araniko is famous for:
- A) Starting Nepal Sambat
- B) Taking the pagoda style to Tibet and China ✔
- C) Writing the first Nepali grammar
- D) Building Swayambhunath
Why: In the 13th century Araniko took Nepal's pagoda style of architecture to Tibet and China.
On which date did the Bhote Koshi–Trishuli flood disaster occur?
- A) 26 August 2026 ✔
- B) 15 July 2026
- C) 4 October 2026
- D) 1 September 2026
Why: The flood struck on 26 August 2026.
What triggered the Bhote Koshi–Trishuli flood of 2026?
- A) A dam failure in Nuwakot
- B) An earthquake in Gorkha
- C) An ice-rock avalanche from the northern slopes of Mt Langtang Lirung ✔
- D) Heavy rain in Chitwan only
Why: An ice-rock avalanche from Langtang Lirung into the Lhende River triggered the flood.
Which district recorded the highest number of deaths in the Bhote Koshi–Trishuli flood?
- A) Rasuwa
- B) Nuwakot
- C) Dhading
- D) Chitwan ✔
Why: Chitwan recorded the highest death toll among the eight affected districts.
Which body released the official figures for the Bhote Koshi–Trishuli flood?
- A) Nepal Rastra Bank
- B) National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Authority ✔
- C) Election Commission
- D) National Planning Commission
Why: The NDRRMA released the official death and missing figures.
How many members are in the House of Representatives special committee on the Bhote Koshi–Trishuli disaster?
- A) 11
- B) 21
- C) 15 ✔
- D) 9
Why: The special committee has 15 members and a three-month term.
Which country will host the 14th South Asian Games?
- A) Nepal
- B) Sri Lanka
- C) Bangladesh
- D) Pakistan ✔
Why: Pakistan confirmed it will host the 14th South Asian Games from 3 to 11 April 2027.
Where were the 20th Asian Games held in 2026?
- A) Aichi and Nagoya, Japan ✔
- B) Hangzhou, China
- C) Jakarta, Indonesia
- D) Doha, Qatar
Why: The 20th Asian Games were held in Aichi and Nagoya, Japan, from 19 September to 4 October 2026.
Which medal did Nepal's women's kabaddi team win at the 2026 Asian Games?
- A) Gold
- B) Silver
- C) Bronze ✔
- D) No medal
Why: Nepal won bronze; India won gold and Iran silver.
Which province will host the 10th National Games in December 2026?
- A) Koshi
- B) Karnali ✔
- C) Lumbini
- D) Gandaki
Why: The 10th National Games are scheduled in Karnali Province from 2 to 11 December 2026.
Who was sworn in as Prime Minister of Nepal on 27 March 2026?
- A) Balendra (Balen) Shah ✔
- B) Swarnim Wagle
- C) Shisir Khanal
- D) Mahabir Pun
Why: Balen Shah of the Rastriya Swatantra Party became Prime Minister on 27 March 2026.
Who is the Finance Minister of Nepal (as of October 2026)?
- A) Sudan Gurung
- B) Sasmit Pokharel
- C) Swarnim Wagle ✔
- D) Biraj Bhakta Shrestha
Why: Swarnim Wagle holds the finance portfolio.
At a UN climate meeting, Nepal said its forest cover is:
- A) about 25 percent
- B) over 46 percent ✔
- C) about 35 percent
- D) over 60 percent
Why: The Foreign Minister said Nepal's forest cover is over 46 percent.
From which date will a national identity card be required to enrol in health insurance?
- A) 1 January 2027
- B) 17 July 2027
- C) 2 October 2026
- D) 16 December 2026 ✔
Why: The national ID becomes mandatory for health insurance enrolment from 16 December 2026.
What is the voltage of the Hetauda–Dhalkebar transmission line?
- A) 400 kV ✔
- B) 132 kV
- C) 220 kV
- D) 66 kV
Why: It is a 400 kV line linking eastern and western Nepal.
Who is the President of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) whom Nepal's Finance Minister met in 2026?
- A) Ajay Banga
- B) Zou Jiayi ✔
- C) Scott Bessent
- D) Masato Kanda
Why: Zou Jiayi is the President of the AIIB.
Which rocket reached orbit for the first time on 28 September 2026?
- A) Falcon 9
- B) Ariane 6
- C) SpaceX Starship ✔
- D) New Glenn
Why: SpaceX's Starship reached orbit for the first time in an uncrewed test flight on 28 September 2026.